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NR 572 Midterm Exam 2026/2027 Chamberlain Advanced Acute Care Management | Actual Exam Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales | Grade A Guide | AGACNP & Critical Care Prep | Downloadable PDF

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This is the comprehensive Midterm Exam preparation guide for NR 572 - Advanced Acute Care Management (2026/2027) at Chamberlain University, featuring actual exam verified answers with detailed rationales. Designed for Adult-Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner (AGACNP) students, this resource consolidates the essential acute and critical care management concepts required to master the NR 572 Midterm Exam and excel in advanced acute care practice. The guide is meticulously aligned with Chamberlain University curriculum, AACN AGACNP certification blueprints, and current evidence-based acute care standards. This verified resource provides comprehensive coverage of key NR 572 Advanced Acute Care Management exam topics, including: Shock Syndromes (hypovolemic shock—causes (hemorrhage (trauma, surgery, GI bleed, ruptured aneurysm, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, postpartum hemorrhage), burns (fluid shifts, third spacing), dehydration (vomiting, diarrhea, NG suctioning, diuresis, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS), adrenal insufficiency, diabetes insipidus (DI), heat stroke, excessive sweating, inadequate intake), pancreatitis (third spacing), bowel obstruction (third spacing), ascites (cirrhosis, heart failure, malignancy), pleural effusion, peritonitis), pathophysiology (decreased intravascular volume → decreased preload → decreased stroke volume → decreased cardiac output → decreased tissue perfusion → cellular hypoxia → anaerobic metabolism → lactic acidosis → organ dysfunction → multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) → death), stages (compensated (tachycardia, cool extremities, delayed capillary refill, narrow pulse pressure, mild hypotension (may be normal), oliguria, anxiety, confusion, thirst, dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor), decompensated (hypotension (systolic BP 90 mm Hg or drop 40 mm Hg from baseline), tachycardia (120 bpm), tachypnea, weak thready pulse, cyanosis, anuria, altered mental status (lethargy, obtundation, coma), cold clammy skin, mottling, absent peripheral pulses, metabolic acidosis, elevated lactate), irreversible (refractory hypotension despite aggressive fluid resuscitation and vasopressors, anuria, severe lactic acidosis (lactate 10 mmol/L), multi-organ failure (acute kidney injury (AKI), acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), acute liver failure, myocardial depression, cerebral ischemia, bowel ischemia, sepsis, death)), hemodynamic parameters (CVP (central venous pressure) low (5 mm Hg), PAOP (pulmonary artery occlusion pressure, wedge pressure) low (8 mm Hg), CO (cardiac output) low, SVR (systemic vascular resistance) high, SvO2 (mixed venous oxygen saturation) low (60%), ScvO2 (central venous oxygen saturation) low (70%)), management (airway (supplemental oxygen, intubation for respiratory failure, hypoxemia, altered mental status, impending airway compromise), breathing (assist with ventilation if needed, target SpO2 92-94%, PaO2 60-80 mm Hg, avoid hyperoxia (FiO2 0.60, PaO2 150 mm Hg) → oxygen toxicity, absorption atelectasis, increased ROS), circulation (IV access (two large bore (16-18 gauge) peripheral IVs, central line if peripheral access inadequate, intraosseous (IO) if unable to obtain IV access emergently), fluid resuscitation (isotonic crystalloids (0.9% normal saline (NS), lactated Ringer's (LR), Plasma-Lyte), initial bolus 1-2 L (20-30 mL/kg) over 15-30 minutes, reassess, repeat as needed (up to 4-6 L), avoid 0.45% NS (hypotonic), avoid dextrose (D5W, D5 1/2 NS) (distributes out of vascular space, worsens hyponatremia, hyperglycemia), blood products (packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for hemorrhagic shock (target Hgb 7-8 g/dL, higher threshold 9-10 g/dL for acute coronary syndrome (ACS), active bleeding, hemodynamic instability, elderly, septic shock? controversial, restrictive strategy (transfuse when Hgb 7) non-inferior to liberal strategy (Hgb 9-10) in septic shock (TRISS trial, TRICS trial), for hemorrhagic shock (massive transfusion protocol (MTP) for active hemorrhage, ratio 1:1:1 (PRBCs:FFP:platelets), fresh frozen plasma (FFP) (coagulopathy, PT/PTT 1.5x normal, fibrinogen 100-150 mg/dL, replace with FFP or cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen)), platelets (50,000 with active bleeding, 20,000 with no bleeding, 10,000 for prophylaxis, transfusion threshold higher for neurosurgery, trauma, intracranial hemorrhage, active bleeding), cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen 100-150 mg/dL, also contains factor VIII, XIII, von Willebrand factor (vWF), fibronectin, treat hypofibrinogenemia, DIC, massive transfusion, cardiac surgery, obstetrical hemorrhage, fibrinogen concentrate (RiaSTAP) alternative to cryoprecipitate, fewer infectious risk, no thawing, faster administration, more consistent fibrinogen content), tranexamic acid (TXA) (antifibrinolytic, 1 g IV over 10 minutes, then 1 g IV over 8 hours, for trauma patients within 3 hours of injury (CRASH-2 trial), for postpartum hemorrhage (WOMAN trial), for GI bleeding (HALT-IT trial, no benefit, increased VTE risk), for intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) (TICH-2 trial, no benefit), for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) (ULTRA trial, no benefit), for cardiac surgery (ATACAS trial, no benefit, increased seizures), for orthopedic surgery (decreases blood loss, transfusion, no increase in VTE), for prostatectomy, hysterectomy, cesarean section

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NR 572 Midterm Exam 2026/2027 Chamberlain Advanced

Acute Care Management Actual Exam Verified Answers with

Detailed Rationales Study Guide Grade A




1. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. What is the appropriate starting

dose strategy for SSRIs in this condition?

A. Start at the full therapeutic dose

B. Start at 1/3 to 1/2 of the normal dose

C. Start at twice the normal dose for rapid effect

D. Start with a loading dose

Correct Answer: B. Start at 1/3 to 1/2 of the normal dose

Rationale: SSRIs for panic disorder should be started at low doses (1/3 to 1/2 of the

normal dose) to minimize initial activation symptoms, which can worsen anxiety. The

dose is then gradually titrated upward.



2. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed fluoxetine. How long should the patient

expect to wait before experiencing a therapeutic response?

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A. 24-48 hours

B. 3-5 days

C. At least 4 weeks

D. 8-12 weeks

Correct Answer: C. At least 4 weeks

Rationale: SSRIs typically take at least 4 weeks to achieve a therapeutic response in

panic disorder. Patients should be educated about this delay to promote adherence.



3. Which medication is absolutely contraindicated for concurrent use with SSRIs in the

treatment of panic disorder?

A. Benzodiazepines

B. Beta-blockers

C. MAOIs

D. Atypical antipsychotics

Correct Answer: C. MAOIs

Rationale: SSRIs are absolutely contraindicated with MAOIs due to the risk of serotonin

syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition. A washout period is required when

switching between these medications.

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4. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed venlafaxine (Effexor). Which medication

class does this belong to?

A. SSRI

B. SNRI

C. MAOI

D. Benzodiazepine

Correct Answer: B. SNRI

Rationale: Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to

treat panic disorder, helping reduce anticipatory anxiety, fear, and avoidance behaviors.



5. A patient with panic disorder and comorbid atypical depression is prescribed a

MAOI. What dietary instruction is essential for this patient?

A. Increase protein intake

B. Maintain a low-tyramine diet; avoid cheese and wine

C. Avoid carbohydrates

D. Increase caffeine consumption

Correct Answer: B. Maintain a low-tyramine diet; avoid cheese and wine

Rationale: MAOIs require dietary restriction of tyramine-containing foods (aged

cheeses, red wine, smoked meats, fermented products) to prevent hypertensive crisis.

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6. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) as adjunctive

therapy. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding duration of use?

A. Use as monotherapy indefinitely

B. Limit use to 4-6 weeks and discontinue by week 7

C. Continue for at least 6 months

D. Use only during panic attacks

Correct Answer: B. Limit use to 4-6 weeks and discontinue by week 7

Rationale: Benzodiazepines are helpful early in treatment but should be limited to 4-6

weeks to avoid dependence. They should not be used as monotherapy for panic

disorder.



7. A patient taking alprazolam (Xanax) reports drowsiness and fatigue. What safety

instruction should the nurse provide?

A. Increase the dose to overcome drowsiness

B. Avoid operating heavy machinery

C. Take the medication with caffeine

D. Take the medication only at night

Correct Answer: B. Avoid operating heavy machinery

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