FSBPT NPTE (PHYSICAL THERAPY) EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED
VERSION LATEST 2026-2027 (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presented with a sudden onset
of left-sided weakness and facial drooping 2 hours ago. His blood pressure is 185/110 mm Hg. What is
the MOST appropriate initial physical therapy action?
A. Perform a full strength assessment of all extremities.
B. *Contact the medical team immediately to rule out an acute stroke. *
C. Apply cervical traction to rule out cervical myelopathy.
D. Begin gait training with a hemiwalker.
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness and facial drooping suggest an acute cerebrovascular accident.
Physical therapy should not intervene until the patient is medically cleared; the priority is to alert the
medical team for possible thrombolytics or emergency management.
2. A 45-year-old female status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction (patellar tendon autograft)
4 weeks ago presents with knee flexion of 95 degrees and extension lag of 10 degrees. Which
intervention is MOST appropriate to improve knee extension range of motion?
A. Prone passive knee flexion stretching.
B. *Heel props with ankle weights. *
C. Open-chain terminal knee extension with a TheraBand.
D. Stationary cycling with low resistance.
Rationale: Heel props (elevating the heel while supine, allowing gravity to extend the knee) effectively
address extension deficits post-ACLR. Prone passive flexion does not target extension; open-chain
extension may stress the graft; cycling is for flexion/endurance.
3. A patient with complete C7 tetraplegia is learning wheelchair propulsion on a level surface. Which
muscle must be innervated for him to perform independent wheeling without adaptive equipment?
A. Deltoid (C5).
B. Biceps (C5-6).
C. *Triceps (C7). *
D. Thenar muscles (C8-T1).
Rationale: C7 provides triceps innervation, necessary for elbow extension during wheelchair push-ups
and propulsion. Without triceps, manual wheelchair use requires specialized rims or power mobility.
,4. A 72-year-old female with osteoporosis and chronic low back pain has a new vertebral compression
fracture at L1. Which exercise is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Pelvic tilts in supine.
B. *Seated forward flexion with a rounded back. *
C. Transversus abdominis bracing.
D. Gentle lumbar extension is prone.
Rationale: Flexion exercises (seated rounded forward bending) increase anterior compression forces on
the vertebral body, worsening fracture risk in osteoporosis. Extension-based exercises are preferred.
5. During a manual muscle test for the gluteus medius, the patient stands on the tested leg and the
contralateral pelvis drops. This indicates:
A. Normal gluteus medius strength.
B. *Positive Trendelenburg sign. *
C. L5 radiculopathy.
D. Hip flexor tightness.
Rationale: Pelvic drop on the unsupported side during single-leg stance is a Trendelenburg sign,
indicating weakness of the contralateral gluteus medius (or superior gluteal nerve pathology).
6. A 30-year-old male with medial knee pain has a positive McMurray test with a palpable click on the
medial joint line. This is MOST indicative of:
A. Medial collateral ligament sprain.
B. *Medial meniscus tear. *
C. Patellofemoral syndrome.
D. Pes anserine bursitis.
Rationale: McMurray test produces a palpable/thudding click over the joint line with meniscal
movement. Medial joint line click suggests medial meniscus tear.
7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
room air at rest. During a 6-minute walk test, saturation drops to 82%. The BEST action is:
A. Stop the test and administer supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min.
B. *Continue the test but monitor symptoms closely. *
C. Immediately call the code blue.
D. Reduce walking speed by 50%.
Rationale: Desaturation to 82% during exercise in a COPD patient is expected; stopping the test is
unnecessary unless severe symptoms (chest pain, confusion). Administering oxygen without order is
beyond PT scope; code is not indicated.
, 8. Which outcome measure is MOST appropriate for a patient with Parkinson’s disease to assess
balance and fall risk in the home environment?
A. Berg Balance Scale.
B. *Activities-specific Balance Confidence (ABC) Scale. *
C. Tinetti Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment.
D. Functional Reach Test.
Rationale: ABC Scale assesses perceived confidence during daily activities, strongly correlated with
fall risk in Parkinson’s. Berg is good but less specific for home activity confidence.
9. A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player presents with anterior knee pain aggravated by squatting and
stair climbing. Physical exam reveals a positive J-sign and patellar glide with lateral hypermobility.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
B. *Patellofemoral instability with lateral tracking. *
C. Quadriceps tendinopathy.
D. Prepatellar bursitis.
Rationale: J-sign (patellar deviates laterally during knee extension from flexion) + lateral glide
hypermobility = patellar instability/tracking disorder.
10. Immediately following a below-knee amputation, which positioning strategy helps prevent knee
flexion contracture?
A. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow.
B. *Supine with the residual limb extended and flat on the bed. *
C. Sidelying with the residual limb flexed.
D. Prone with the residual limb hanging off the bed.
Rationale: Prolonged pillow under the residual limb encourages knee flexion. Extended positioning
(flat) prevents flexion contracture. Prone can be used later but not immediately post-op due to wound
care.
11. A 65-year-old male 1 day after total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) attempts to get out of
bed. Which motion is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Hip extension with knee extension.
B. *Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees with adduction and internal rotation. *
C. Hip abduction in supine.
D. Ankle pumps.
Rationale: Posterior hip precautions: avoid hip flexion >90°, adduction, and internal rotation
(combined motion risks dislocation). Hip extension is allowed.
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED
VERSION LATEST 2026-2027 (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presented with a sudden onset
of left-sided weakness and facial drooping 2 hours ago. His blood pressure is 185/110 mm Hg. What is
the MOST appropriate initial physical therapy action?
A. Perform a full strength assessment of all extremities.
B. *Contact the medical team immediately to rule out an acute stroke. *
C. Apply cervical traction to rule out cervical myelopathy.
D. Begin gait training with a hemiwalker.
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness and facial drooping suggest an acute cerebrovascular accident.
Physical therapy should not intervene until the patient is medically cleared; the priority is to alert the
medical team for possible thrombolytics or emergency management.
2. A 45-year-old female status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction (patellar tendon autograft)
4 weeks ago presents with knee flexion of 95 degrees and extension lag of 10 degrees. Which
intervention is MOST appropriate to improve knee extension range of motion?
A. Prone passive knee flexion stretching.
B. *Heel props with ankle weights. *
C. Open-chain terminal knee extension with a TheraBand.
D. Stationary cycling with low resistance.
Rationale: Heel props (elevating the heel while supine, allowing gravity to extend the knee) effectively
address extension deficits post-ACLR. Prone passive flexion does not target extension; open-chain
extension may stress the graft; cycling is for flexion/endurance.
3. A patient with complete C7 tetraplegia is learning wheelchair propulsion on a level surface. Which
muscle must be innervated for him to perform independent wheeling without adaptive equipment?
A. Deltoid (C5).
B. Biceps (C5-6).
C. *Triceps (C7). *
D. Thenar muscles (C8-T1).
Rationale: C7 provides triceps innervation, necessary for elbow extension during wheelchair push-ups
and propulsion. Without triceps, manual wheelchair use requires specialized rims or power mobility.
,4. A 72-year-old female with osteoporosis and chronic low back pain has a new vertebral compression
fracture at L1. Which exercise is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Pelvic tilts in supine.
B. *Seated forward flexion with a rounded back. *
C. Transversus abdominis bracing.
D. Gentle lumbar extension is prone.
Rationale: Flexion exercises (seated rounded forward bending) increase anterior compression forces on
the vertebral body, worsening fracture risk in osteoporosis. Extension-based exercises are preferred.
5. During a manual muscle test for the gluteus medius, the patient stands on the tested leg and the
contralateral pelvis drops. This indicates:
A. Normal gluteus medius strength.
B. *Positive Trendelenburg sign. *
C. L5 radiculopathy.
D. Hip flexor tightness.
Rationale: Pelvic drop on the unsupported side during single-leg stance is a Trendelenburg sign,
indicating weakness of the contralateral gluteus medius (or superior gluteal nerve pathology).
6. A 30-year-old male with medial knee pain has a positive McMurray test with a palpable click on the
medial joint line. This is MOST indicative of:
A. Medial collateral ligament sprain.
B. *Medial meniscus tear. *
C. Patellofemoral syndrome.
D. Pes anserine bursitis.
Rationale: McMurray test produces a palpable/thudding click over the joint line with meniscal
movement. Medial joint line click suggests medial meniscus tear.
7. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen saturation of 88% on
room air at rest. During a 6-minute walk test, saturation drops to 82%. The BEST action is:
A. Stop the test and administer supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min.
B. *Continue the test but monitor symptoms closely. *
C. Immediately call the code blue.
D. Reduce walking speed by 50%.
Rationale: Desaturation to 82% during exercise in a COPD patient is expected; stopping the test is
unnecessary unless severe symptoms (chest pain, confusion). Administering oxygen without order is
beyond PT scope; code is not indicated.
, 8. Which outcome measure is MOST appropriate for a patient with Parkinson’s disease to assess
balance and fall risk in the home environment?
A. Berg Balance Scale.
B. *Activities-specific Balance Confidence (ABC) Scale. *
C. Tinetti Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment.
D. Functional Reach Test.
Rationale: ABC Scale assesses perceived confidence during daily activities, strongly correlated with
fall risk in Parkinson’s. Berg is good but less specific for home activity confidence.
9. A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player presents with anterior knee pain aggravated by squatting and
stair climbing. Physical exam reveals a positive J-sign and patellar glide with lateral hypermobility.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
B. *Patellofemoral instability with lateral tracking. *
C. Quadriceps tendinopathy.
D. Prepatellar bursitis.
Rationale: J-sign (patellar deviates laterally during knee extension from flexion) + lateral glide
hypermobility = patellar instability/tracking disorder.
10. Immediately following a below-knee amputation, which positioning strategy helps prevent knee
flexion contracture?
A. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow.
B. *Supine with the residual limb extended and flat on the bed. *
C. Sidelying with the residual limb flexed.
D. Prone with the residual limb hanging off the bed.
Rationale: Prolonged pillow under the residual limb encourages knee flexion. Extended positioning
(flat) prevents flexion contracture. Prone can be used later but not immediately post-op due to wound
care.
11. A 65-year-old male 1 day after total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach) attempts to get out of
bed. Which motion is CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Hip extension with knee extension.
B. *Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees with adduction and internal rotation. *
C. Hip abduction in supine.
D. Ankle pumps.
Rationale: Posterior hip precautions: avoid hip flexion >90°, adduction, and internal rotation
(combined motion risks dislocation). Hip extension is allowed.
