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CNRN Practice Exam Questions With Correct Answers

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CNRN Practice Exam Questions With Correct Answers

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CNRN
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CNRN

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CNRN Practice Exam Questions With Correct
Answers

Which of the following tumor types will have a higher incidence in pediatric
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populations and have a decreased incidence with age?
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A. Glioblastoma
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B. Pilocytic astrocytoma
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C. Central nervous system lymphoma
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D. Metastatic brain tumor - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-B
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Rationale: Both pilocytic astrocytoma and medulloblastoma brain tumors are
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more commonly found in the younger population. The incidence of these tumors
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will decrease with age. Glioblastomas are more frequently found in young adults.
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CNS lymphoma and metastasis will have an increased incidence with age.
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A patient presents with progressive neurological deficits and has a recent history
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of transient neurological attack. This patient is most likely experiencing which of
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the following types of stroke?
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A. Thrombotic stroke
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B. Embolic stroke
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C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
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D. Vasospasms - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-A
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Rationale: Thrombotic strokes frequently present as a worsening neurological
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status over a short period of time. Patients may have experienced episodes of
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transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) before the onset of the ischemic strokes. Embolic
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,strokes tend to have a more sudden onset without progression in symptoms.
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Subarachnoid hemorrhages (SAHs) are a sudden onset of headache without the
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history of transient neurological deficits. Vasospasms are associated with SAH,
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and symptoms occur most commonly between 7 and 10 days after the SAH.
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Which of the following best describes a coup injury?
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A. Injury occurs at the point of impact.
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B. Injury occurs on the contralateral side of impact.
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C. It is an acceleration injury.
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D. It is a deceleration injury. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-A
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Rationale: A coup injury occurs at the point of impact, and a contracoup injury
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occurs on the contralateral side. The mechanism of injury for acceleration injuries
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is commonly defined as a moving object hitting a stationary head, whereas a
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deceleration injury involves a moving head hitting a stationary object.
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A patient is admitted to the ICU with persistent epileptic seizures lasting beyond
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90 minutes. Which of the following best describes the seizure activity?
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A. Epileptic seizure
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B. Epilepsy
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C. Refractory seizure
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D. Nonepileptic seizure - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-C
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Rationale: An epileptic seizure, which persists for greater than 90 minutes despite
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administration of anticonvulsants is called a refractory seizure. An epileptic
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seizure indicates the presence of EEG wave changes during the seizure activity.
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Epilepsy refers to repetitive seizures without a reversible cause such as
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hyponatremia. Nonepileptic seizure is the presence of seizure activity without the
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EEG changes.
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,Which of the following would be the best technique to use to assess for
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cerebrospinal fluid in bloody drainage from the nose following a traumatic brain
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injury?
A. Glucose test
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B. Halo test
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C. Send to lab for hemoglobin level
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D. Litmus test - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-B
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Rationale: Halo test (a positive result produces a yellow ring) is more accurate
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than a glucose test, especially with the presence of bloody drainage. A glucose
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test has been used to distinguish between sinus drainage and cerebrospinal fluid
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(CSF) because CSF has glucose but sinus drainage does not. But in this scenario,
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the drainage was "bloody," and blood has glucose. Bloody drainage may give a
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false positive with a glucose test. Testing for hemoglobin in the drainage does not
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|determine the presence of CSF. Litmus test is used to test a pH of a fluid and is
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not used to distinguish CSF from nasal drainage.
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Which of the following is the most common cause of an embolic stroke?
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A. Atrial septal defect
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B. Atrial fibrillation
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C. Calcified lesion
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D. Angioplasty - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-B
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Rationale: Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common cause of an embolic stroke.
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Atrial septic defect (ASD) and calcified lesions can also result in embolic strokes
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but are significantly less common than AF. A complication of angioplasty can be
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distal embolization but again is not the most common cause of an embolic stroke.
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, Cranial nerve (CN) VII (facial nerve) is commonly involved with Bell's palsy. Where
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does this CN originate?
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A. Pons |




B. Medulla
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C. Midbrain
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D. Basal ganglia - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-A
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Rationale: Cranial nerve (CN) V (trigeminal nerve), VI (abducens nerve), VII (facial
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nerve), and VIII (acoustic nerve) originate from the pons. CNs IX (hypoglossal
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nerve), X (vagus), XI (spinal accessory nerve), and XII (hypoglossal nerve) originate
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from medulla. CNs III (oculomotor nerve) and IV (glossopharyngeal nerve)
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originate from the midbrain. No cranial nerves originate from the basal ganglia.
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Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is LESS likely to result in a
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seizure?
A. Hyponatremia
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B. Hyperkalemia
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C. Hypocalcemia
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D. Hypomagnesemia - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔-B
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Rationale: Hyponatremia is one of the most common electrolyte abnormalities
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that can cause a seizure. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia can also cause
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seizures. Potassium is more likely to affect the myocardial electrical system,
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resulting in arrhythmias. | |




A patient in the ICU following a severe traumatic brain injury suddenly
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demonstrates profuse sweating, sustained tachycardia, hypertension, and fever.
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Which of the following is the most likely cause?
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A. Neurogenic fever
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Institución
CNRN
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CNRN

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Subido en
5 de abril de 2026
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Escrito en
2025/2026
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