2S051 SELF TEST QUESTIONS VERIFIED ACCURATE
ANSWERS
What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel
management? - Answers - AFI 36-2101
Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system? -
Answers - Wholesale Logistics Program.
What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broadening program? -
Answers - Technical sergeant or master sergeant.
Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field? - Answers
- MFM. (MAJCOM functional manager)
Who chairs the Air Force Materiel Management Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the
education and training path of our enlisted force? - Answers - CFM. (career field
manager)
What is eLog21? - Answers - the AF's transformation campaign plan to improve logistics
to meet both
the current and future threat environment.
What is the goal of Integrated Processes? - Answers - To create unified, enterprise-
wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the
right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time
Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF
weapon
system? - Answers - AFMC.
Where are the three ALCs located? - Answers - Ogden ALC (OO-ALC), Oklahoma City
ALC (OC-ALC), Warner Robins ALC (WR-ALC).
Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD? -
Answers - DLA
What type of products does GSA provide? - Answers - Office supplies, hand tools,
paints, chemicals, automotive supplies, and furniture
Define local manufacture. - Answers - Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on
base.
,What is a GPC? - Answers - It is the official government credit card for making
authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and
non-personal services costing up to $2,500.
Define centralize repair facility. - Answers - Gives maintenance options ranging from
complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions
in a single facility.
What two elements make up the maintenance support section? - Answers - MSL and
FSC
Define the SCOR model. - Answers - It is a commercial based supply chain integration
model used to describe business activities associated with
all phases of satisfying a customer's demand.
List the functional flights in LRS. - Answers - Deployment and distribution, fuels
management, materiel management, vehicle management.
How many organizations make up the AFSC? - Answers - 3
List the four materiel management major processes. - Answers - Item accounting, file
maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.
Which item accounting process provides the total assets position of the item record
requested, to include interchangeable and substitutions - Answers - Due-out Process
What is the purpose of DOD 4140.1-R? - Answers - To implement requirements and
procedures for DOD materiel managers and others who need to work
within or with the DOD supply system.
What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 Defense Logistics Management System
Manual
prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations? - Answers -
Supply, acquisition , maintenance, and finance
Which is the first step when research is required in AFI 23-101? - Answers - Go to the
Air Force e-publishing website www.e-publishing.af.mil and type in the
publication you require in product number/title search menu.
What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122? - Answers - Table of
contents and find tool.
What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a
document within
AFH 23-123? - Answers - Find tool
,What is an NSN? - Answers - A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a
specific item.
What two entities make up the NSN? - Answers - The FSC and the NIIN.
What are the four major types of computer inquiries? - Answers - Item record, detail
record, part number record, and other records.
What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific
document
number? - Answers - Detail record
What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse? - Answers - M32
What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the
computer? - Answers - Record retrieval.
What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output? - Answers - Your input
image.
In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed? - Answers - Narrative
format
What information is provided from a part number inquiry? - Answers - The NSN, cage
code, and TO associated with that particular number.
What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data? - Answers - 5
What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a
given
stock number? - Answers - R
How far back can users query CTH records? - Answers - One year or more.
What are the three CTH inquiry input formats? - Answers - (1) Stock number.
(2) Transaction serial number.
(3) Batch miscellaneous option inquiry.
What three elements make up a reject phrase? - Answers - A reject code, a descriptive
phrase, and an action flag.
When you receive a reject, what should you do first? - Answers - Ensure that you put all
the data in correctly.
What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject? -
Answers - AFH 23-123, Volume 2, Part 2, Chap. 7.
, What is the difference between a reject and a management notice? - Answers -
Management notices do not stop computer processing. Instead transactions are
processed and database
records are updated.
Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed? - Answers - One workday
unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction.
What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner? - Answers -
D818
Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force delete a reject
image? - Answers - Option 3
Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced deletions of
rejects are
processed for valid reasons only? - Answers - Flight chief
Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of
processing, and
the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing? - Answers - To determine
effectiveness of transaction processing.
What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs? - Answers -
Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not.
Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights? - Answers -
Flight chiefs.
What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?
- Answers - A 301 reject notice.
What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized
TRIC
processing? - Answers - D20, Part 8.
What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings? -
Answers - Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-122, an approved supplement, or an AF
Form 2011.
Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production
scheduler? - Answers - By the 15th workday of the same month.
What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting? - Answers -
AF Form 2011.
ANSWERS
What AFI publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel
management? - Answers - AFI 36-2101
Which program promotes a better understanding of the whole supply system? -
Answers - Wholesale Logistics Program.
What rank is required to qualify for the Logistics Career Broadening program? -
Answers - Technical sergeant or master sergeant.
Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field? - Answers
- MFM. (MAJCOM functional manager)
Who chairs the Air Force Materiel Management Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the
education and training path of our enlisted force? - Answers - CFM. (career field
manager)
What is eLog21? - Answers - the AF's transformation campaign plan to improve logistics
to meet both
the current and future threat environment.
What is the goal of Integrated Processes? - Answers - To create unified, enterprise-
wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the
right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time
Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF
weapon
system? - Answers - AFMC.
Where are the three ALCs located? - Answers - Ogden ALC (OO-ALC), Oklahoma City
ALC (OC-ALC), Warner Robins ALC (WR-ALC).
Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD? -
Answers - DLA
What type of products does GSA provide? - Answers - Office supplies, hand tools,
paints, chemicals, automotive supplies, and furniture
Define local manufacture. - Answers - Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on
base.
,What is a GPC? - Answers - It is the official government credit card for making
authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and
non-personal services costing up to $2,500.
Define centralize repair facility. - Answers - Gives maintenance options ranging from
complete decentralization to centralization of repair functions
in a single facility.
What two elements make up the maintenance support section? - Answers - MSL and
FSC
Define the SCOR model. - Answers - It is a commercial based supply chain integration
model used to describe business activities associated with
all phases of satisfying a customer's demand.
List the functional flights in LRS. - Answers - Deployment and distribution, fuels
management, materiel management, vehicle management.
How many organizations make up the AFSC? - Answers - 3
List the four materiel management major processes. - Answers - Item accounting, file
maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.
Which item accounting process provides the total assets position of the item record
requested, to include interchangeable and substitutions - Answers - Due-out Process
What is the purpose of DOD 4140.1-R? - Answers - To implement requirements and
procedures for DOD materiel managers and others who need to work
within or with the DOD supply system.
What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 Defense Logistics Management System
Manual
prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations? - Answers -
Supply, acquisition , maintenance, and finance
Which is the first step when research is required in AFI 23-101? - Answers - Go to the
Air Force e-publishing website www.e-publishing.af.mil and type in the
publication you require in product number/title search menu.
What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122? - Answers - Table of
contents and find tool.
What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a
document within
AFH 23-123? - Answers - Find tool
,What is an NSN? - Answers - A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a
specific item.
What two entities make up the NSN? - Answers - The FSC and the NIIN.
What are the four major types of computer inquiries? - Answers - Item record, detail
record, part number record, and other records.
What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific
document
number? - Answers - Detail record
What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse? - Answers - M32
What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the
computer? - Answers - Record retrieval.
What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output? - Answers - Your input
image.
In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed? - Answers - Narrative
format
What information is provided from a part number inquiry? - Answers - The NSN, cage
code, and TO associated with that particular number.
What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data? - Answers - 5
What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a
given
stock number? - Answers - R
How far back can users query CTH records? - Answers - One year or more.
What are the three CTH inquiry input formats? - Answers - (1) Stock number.
(2) Transaction serial number.
(3) Batch miscellaneous option inquiry.
What three elements make up a reject phrase? - Answers - A reject code, a descriptive
phrase, and an action flag.
When you receive a reject, what should you do first? - Answers - Ensure that you put all
the data in correctly.
What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject? -
Answers - AFH 23-123, Volume 2, Part 2, Chap. 7.
, What is the difference between a reject and a management notice? - Answers -
Management notices do not stop computer processing. Instead transactions are
processed and database
records are updated.
Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed? - Answers - One workday
unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction.
What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner? - Answers -
D818
Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force delete a reject
image? - Answers - Option 3
Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced deletions of
rejects are
processed for valid reasons only? - Answers - Flight chief
Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of
processing, and
the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing? - Answers - To determine
effectiveness of transaction processing.
What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs? - Answers -
Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not.
Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights? - Answers -
Flight chiefs.
What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?
- Answers - A 301 reject notice.
What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized
TRIC
processing? - Answers - D20, Part 8.
What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings? -
Answers - Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-122, an approved supplement, or an AF
Form 2011.
Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production
scheduler? - Answers - By the 15th workday of the same month.
What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting? - Answers -
AF Form 2011.
