BSN HESI 266
BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
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,BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions &
Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete
A+ Guide - Nightingale
Page 1
Question 1
A 78 year old male visits his primary healthcare provider reporting an increase in
urinary urgency and frequency. The nurse recognizes that the client has ______
incontinence which may be caused by benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH).
Correct Answer: Overflow
Rationale: BPH causes bladder outlet obstruction, leading to urinary retention,
which then causes overflow incontinence (leakage when bladder is
overdistended). Stress incontinence is from weak pelvic floor muscles, urge from
detrusor overactivity, functional from mobility issues.
Page 2
Question 2
Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a
client who has started treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes insipidus?
A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
B. Check your blood sugar prior to each meal
C. Keep legs elevated to reduce swelling
D. Restrict fluids to half the volume of urine output
Correct Answer: A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
,Rationale: Daily weight helps monitor fluid balance. Diabetes insipidus causes
excessive urination and thirst; fluid restriction is dangerous. Blood sugar
monitoring is for diabetes mellitus, not insipidus.
Question 3
One hour after major abdominal surgery a client in the PACU has BP 136/80.
Fifteen minutes later it is 114/72. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase frequency of BP assessments
B. Encourage the client to breathe deeply
C. Check abdominal surgical dressing
D. Review the client's baseline BP trends
Correct Answer: C. Check the abdominal surgical dressing
Rationale: A sudden drop in BP post-abdominal surgery suggests possible internal
bleeding. The nurse should first check the dressing for bleeding, then increase
monitoring and review baseline.
Page 3
Question 4 (NGN, 36 y/o female)
Which findings indicate that the client is adhering to the treatment plan? (SATA)
A. Complete blood count
B. Subjective report from client
C. Vital signs
D. Body mass index
E. Record of medication administration
F. Physical assessment
G. Meal diary
Correct Answers: B, E, G
, Rationale: Adherence is best shown by client's own report (B), medication records
(E), and meal diary (G). Lab values and vitals show outcomes, not adherence
directly.
Page 4
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports blood glucose 180-210 upon
waking, plus increased disturbing dreams and diaphoresis during the night.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Check blood glucose during the night
B. Have glucose monitor recalibrated
C. Eat a high carbohydrate snack before bed
D. Report to clinic for fasting serum glucose
Correct Answer: A. Check blood glucose during the night
Rationale: Symptoms suggest nocturnal hypoglycemia with rebound
hyperglycemia (Somogyi effect). Nighttime glucose checks will confirm.
Question 6
An adult woman with primary Raynaud's phenomenon develops pallor then
cyanosis of fingers. After warming, fingers turn red and client reports burning
sensation. What action should the nurse take?
A. Report to HCP as soon as possible
B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
C. Secure pulse oximeter
D. Apply cool compress for 20 minutes
Correct Answer: B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
Testbankscove
➢
➢
➢
➢
➢
,BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions &
Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete
A+ Guide - Nightingale
Page 1
Question 1
A 78 year old male visits his primary healthcare provider reporting an increase in
urinary urgency and frequency. The nurse recognizes that the client has ______
incontinence which may be caused by benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH).
Correct Answer: Overflow
Rationale: BPH causes bladder outlet obstruction, leading to urinary retention,
which then causes overflow incontinence (leakage when bladder is
overdistended). Stress incontinence is from weak pelvic floor muscles, urge from
detrusor overactivity, functional from mobility issues.
Page 2
Question 2
Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a
client who has started treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes insipidus?
A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
B. Check your blood sugar prior to each meal
C. Keep legs elevated to reduce swelling
D. Restrict fluids to half the volume of urine output
Correct Answer: A. Weigh yourself every day at the same time
,Rationale: Daily weight helps monitor fluid balance. Diabetes insipidus causes
excessive urination and thirst; fluid restriction is dangerous. Blood sugar
monitoring is for diabetes mellitus, not insipidus.
Question 3
One hour after major abdominal surgery a client in the PACU has BP 136/80.
Fifteen minutes later it is 114/72. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase frequency of BP assessments
B. Encourage the client to breathe deeply
C. Check abdominal surgical dressing
D. Review the client's baseline BP trends
Correct Answer: C. Check the abdominal surgical dressing
Rationale: A sudden drop in BP post-abdominal surgery suggests possible internal
bleeding. The nurse should first check the dressing for bleeding, then increase
monitoring and review baseline.
Page 3
Question 4 (NGN, 36 y/o female)
Which findings indicate that the client is adhering to the treatment plan? (SATA)
A. Complete blood count
B. Subjective report from client
C. Vital signs
D. Body mass index
E. Record of medication administration
F. Physical assessment
G. Meal diary
Correct Answers: B, E, G
, Rationale: Adherence is best shown by client's own report (B), medication records
(E), and meal diary (G). Lab values and vitals show outcomes, not adherence
directly.
Page 4
Question 5
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports blood glucose 180-210 upon
waking, plus increased disturbing dreams and diaphoresis during the night.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Check blood glucose during the night
B. Have glucose monitor recalibrated
C. Eat a high carbohydrate snack before bed
D. Report to clinic for fasting serum glucose
Correct Answer: A. Check blood glucose during the night
Rationale: Symptoms suggest nocturnal hypoglycemia with rebound
hyperglycemia (Somogyi effect). Nighttime glucose checks will confirm.
Question 6
An adult woman with primary Raynaud's phenomenon develops pallor then
cyanosis of fingers. After warming, fingers turn red and client reports burning
sensation. What action should the nurse take?
A. Report to HCP as soon as possible
B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
C. Secure pulse oximeter
D. Apply cool compress for 20 minutes
Correct Answer: B. Continue to monitor until color returns to normal
