NUR 231 Exam 3: Childbearing & Child Caring Family Study Guide 2026
Galen
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds a heart rate of
110, slow/irregular breathing, some flexion of extremities, a grimace in
response to suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the
APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: D
Rationale: Heart rate > 100 (2), slow/irregular respiratory effort (1), some flexion (1),
grimace (1), and acrocyanosis (1) equals 6.
2. Where should the nurse expect to find the fundus 12 hours after a normal
vaginal delivery?
A. Halfway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
B. 2 cm below the umbilicus
C. At the symphysis pubis
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Answer: D
Rationale: Approximately 12 hours postpartum, the fundus is usually located at the level
of the umbilicus.
,3. Which medication is the primary antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity in a
client with preeclampsia?
A. Calcium Gluconate
B. Terbutaline
C. Naloxone
D. Oxytocin
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium Gluconate is the antagonist used to reverse the effects of magnesium
sulfate toxicity.
4. A nurse observes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Reposition the mother to her left side
B. Assist the mother to a supine position
C. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
D. Increase the Oxytocin infusion rate
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning the
mother to the side (usually left) improves blood flow to the placenta.
5. What is the classic clinical sign of Placenta Previa?
A. Painful, dark red vaginal bleeding
B. Board-like abdomen with severe pain
C. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Sudden gush of clear fluid from the vagina
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta Previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding in the second
or third trimester.
, 6. A client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which cervical
dilation range defines this phase?
A. 0 to 3 cm
B. Full dilation to birth
C. 8 to 10 cm
D. 4 to 7 cm
Answer: D
Rationale: The active phase of labor occurs when the cervix dilates from 4 to 7 cm.
7. Which assessment finding is most suggestive of Abruptio Placentae?
A. A soft, non-tender uterus
B. Abdominal pain and uterine rigidity
C. Intermittent painless contractions
D. Absence of fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio Placentae often presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
and a hard, board-like abdomen.
8. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent which condition
in future pregnancies?
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Physiological jaundice
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Spina bifida
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents the development of Rh antibodies, which can cause
hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) in subsequent pregnancies.
Galen
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 minute after birth and finds a heart rate of
110, slow/irregular breathing, some flexion of extremities, a grimace in
response to suctioning, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the
APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: D
Rationale: Heart rate > 100 (2), slow/irregular respiratory effort (1), some flexion (1),
grimace (1), and acrocyanosis (1) equals 6.
2. Where should the nurse expect to find the fundus 12 hours after a normal
vaginal delivery?
A. Halfway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
B. 2 cm below the umbilicus
C. At the symphysis pubis
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Answer: D
Rationale: Approximately 12 hours postpartum, the fundus is usually located at the level
of the umbilicus.
,3. Which medication is the primary antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity in a
client with preeclampsia?
A. Calcium Gluconate
B. Terbutaline
C. Naloxone
D. Oxytocin
Answer: A
Rationale: Calcium Gluconate is the antagonist used to reverse the effects of magnesium
sulfate toxicity.
4. A nurse observes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Reposition the mother to her left side
B. Assist the mother to a supine position
C. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
D. Increase the Oxytocin infusion rate
Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning the
mother to the side (usually left) improves blood flow to the placenta.
5. What is the classic clinical sign of Placenta Previa?
A. Painful, dark red vaginal bleeding
B. Board-like abdomen with severe pain
C. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Sudden gush of clear fluid from the vagina
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta Previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding in the second
or third trimester.
, 6. A client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which cervical
dilation range defines this phase?
A. 0 to 3 cm
B. Full dilation to birth
C. 8 to 10 cm
D. 4 to 7 cm
Answer: D
Rationale: The active phase of labor occurs when the cervix dilates from 4 to 7 cm.
7. Which assessment finding is most suggestive of Abruptio Placentae?
A. A soft, non-tender uterus
B. Abdominal pain and uterine rigidity
C. Intermittent painless contractions
D. Absence of fetal movement
Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptio Placentae often presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
and a hard, board-like abdomen.
8. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers to prevent which condition
in future pregnancies?
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Physiological jaundice
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Spina bifida
Answer: A
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents the development of Rh antibodies, which can cause
hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) in subsequent pregnancies.
