NR 602 Midterm Exam - Chamberlain Primary Care 2026 Chamberlain
College
1. At which age is it recommended to perform the first screening for Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) using a standardized tool like the M-CHAT?
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months
Answer: A
Rationale: The AAP recommends universal screening for ASD at 18 and 24 months of age
to ensure early intervention.
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in
children?
A. Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: A
Rationale: Group A Streptococcus (GABHS) is the primary bacterial cause of pharyngitis in
the pediatric population.
,3. A 15-year-old female presents with breast bud development and sparse, long,
pigmented pubic hair along the labia. What Tanner Stage does this represent?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is characterized by the onset of breast budding (thelarche) and
the appearance of sparse pubic hair.
4. What is the recommended timing for screening pregnant women for Group B
Streptococcus (GBS)?
A. 24-28 weeks gestation
B. 36-37 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 28-32 weeks gestation
Answer: B
Rationale: GBS screening is standardly performed at 36 0/7 to 37 6/7 weeks of gestation
via vaginal-rectal culture.
5. According to Naegele’s rule, if a patient’s Last Menstrual Period (LMP) was
August 10, what is the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD)?
A. May 10
B. April 17
C. June 17
D. May 17
Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele’s Rule: Subtract 3 months from the LMP, add 7 days, and add 1 year
(Aug 10 - 3 months = May 10 + 7 days = May 17).
, 6. Which of the following is considered a ‘positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum hCG test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by provider
D. Chadwick’s sign
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs are those attributed only to the presence of a fetus, such as fetal
heart tones, fetal movement felt by a provider, or visualization by ultrasound.
7. A 4-month-old infant should be able to perform which developmental
milestone?
A. Sit without support
B. Roll from front to back
C. Pull to stand
D. Transfer objects from hand to hand
Answer: B
Rationale: Rolling from front to back is a typical 4-month milestone; sitting without
support usually occurs by 6 months.
8. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated Acute Otitis
Media in a child with no drug allergies?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Clindamycin
Answer: A
Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the first-line treatment for
pediatric acute otitis media.
College
1. At which age is it recommended to perform the first screening for Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) using a standardized tool like the M-CHAT?
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months
Answer: A
Rationale: The AAP recommends universal screening for ASD at 18 and 24 months of age
to ensure early intervention.
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis in
children?
A. Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: A
Rationale: Group A Streptococcus (GABHS) is the primary bacterial cause of pharyngitis in
the pediatric population.
,3. A 15-year-old female presents with breast bud development and sparse, long,
pigmented pubic hair along the labia. What Tanner Stage does this represent?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Tanner Stage 2 is characterized by the onset of breast budding (thelarche) and
the appearance of sparse pubic hair.
4. What is the recommended timing for screening pregnant women for Group B
Streptococcus (GBS)?
A. 24-28 weeks gestation
B. 36-37 weeks gestation
C. 32-34 weeks gestation
D. 28-32 weeks gestation
Answer: B
Rationale: GBS screening is standardly performed at 36 0/7 to 37 6/7 weeks of gestation
via vaginal-rectal culture.
5. According to Naegele’s rule, if a patient’s Last Menstrual Period (LMP) was
August 10, what is the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD)?
A. May 10
B. April 17
C. June 17
D. May 17
Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele’s Rule: Subtract 3 months from the LMP, add 7 days, and add 1 year
(Aug 10 - 3 months = May 10 + 7 days = May 17).
, 6. Which of the following is considered a ‘positive’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum hCG test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by provider
D. Chadwick’s sign
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs are those attributed only to the presence of a fetus, such as fetal
heart tones, fetal movement felt by a provider, or visualization by ultrasound.
7. A 4-month-old infant should be able to perform which developmental
milestone?
A. Sit without support
B. Roll from front to back
C. Pull to stand
D. Transfer objects from hand to hand
Answer: B
Rationale: Rolling from front to back is a typical 4-month milestone; sitting without
support usually occurs by 6 months.
8. What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for an uncomplicated Acute Otitis
Media in a child with no drug allergies?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Azithromycin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Clindamycin
Answer: A
Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin (80-90 mg/kg/day) is the first-line treatment for
pediatric acute otitis media.
