NSG 6020 Week 7 Complete Questions and Answers Exam 2026

NSG 6020 Week 7 Complete Questions and Answers Exam 2026 A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely - Correct Ans-Bartholin's gland infection A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1 week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently sexually active and has had no burning with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing woman. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination ther - Correct Ans-Candida vaginitis Which of the following represents metrorrhagia? - Correct Ans-bleeding between periods A 42-year-old realtor comes to your clinic, complaining of "growths" in her vulvar area. She is currently undergoing a divorce and is convinced she has a sexually transmitted disease. She denies any vaginal discharge or pain with urination. She has had no fever, malaise, or night sweats. Her past medical history consists of depression and hypothyroidism. She has had two spontaneous vaginal deliveries and one cesarean section. She has had no other surgeries. She denies smoking or drug use. She has two to three drinks weekly. Her mother also has hypothyroidism and her father has high blood pressure and hypercholesterolemia. On examination you see a woman who is anxious but appears otherwise healthy. Her blood pressure, pulse, and temperature are NSG 6020 NSG 6020 unremarkable. On visualization of the perineum you see two 2- to 3-mm, round, yellow nodules on the left labia. On palpation they are nontender and quite firm. What diagnosis b - Correct Ans-epidermoid cyst examination of a female patients right breast reveals a retraction of the nipple and areola. This finding is consistent with? (nipple discharge is usually unilateral and can be clear or bloody) can have fixed lump and present as chronic rash on the breast - Correct Ans-breast cancer Patient needs to be told to stop compressing her nipple. - Correct Ans-benign breast abnormality fixed flattening of the nipple suggest (recent or fixed flattening or depression of the nipple) may also be broadened and thickened - Correct Ans-nipple retraction internal malignancy associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, consisting of acne, hirstism, obesity, irregular periods, infertility, ovarian cys, and eterm-6arly onset type II diabetes - Correct Ans-acanthosis nigricans A 17 year old female patient complains of amenorrhea for the last 8 months, weight gain, excessive hair growth on the arms and chest, and development of acne. Pelvic examination is normal. The clinician should recognize these are signs of - Correct Ans hormonal imbalances Uncommon form of breast cancer that starts with a scaly, eczema-like lesion that may weep, crust , or erode - Correct Ans-pagets disease Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus infection - Correct Ans-it commonly resolves spontaneously in one to two years Jean has just given birth 6 months ago and is breast-feeding her child. She has not had a period since giving birth. What does this most likely represent? - Correct Ans Secondary amenorrhea Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true? - Correct Ans-Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition. It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer - Correct Ans-a high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination One breast larger than the other - Correct Ans-benign breast examination If diagnosed with gonorrhea should be treated from the following infection - Correct Ans chlamydia NSG 6020 NSG 6020 A 34-year-old married daycare worker comes to your office, complaining of severe pelvic pain for the last 6 hours. She states that the pain was at first cramp-like but is now sharp. Nothing makes the pain better or worse. She has had no vaginal bleeding or discharge. She has had no pain with urination. She has had some nausea for the last few days but denies vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea. She states she feels so bad that when she stands up she has fainted. Her past medical history consists of two prior cesarean sections and an appendectomy. She is married and has two children. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her parents are both healthy. On examination you find a pale young woman who is obviously in a great deal of pain. She is lying on her right side with her eyes closed. Her blood pressure is 90/60 and her pulse is 110. She is afebrile. She has bowel sounds and her abdomen is soft. The speculum - Correct Ans-tubal pregnancy A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 100.3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual ex - Correct Ans-genital herpes A 30-year-old paralegal analyst comes to your clinic, complaining of a bad-smelling vaginal discharge with some mild itching, present for about 3 weeks. She tried douching but it did not help. She has had no pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. She has noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of one spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is married and has one child. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died from a heart disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. On examination of the perineum there are no lesions noted. On palpation of the inguinal nodes there is no lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination a thin gray-white discharge is seen in the vault. The pH of the - Correct Ans-bacterial vaginosis A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other NSG 6020 symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor a - Correct Ans-atrophic vaginitis NSG 6020