BSN 346 Exam 1: Concepts of Nursing III -
V3 Updated and Verified Questions and
Answers
1. A patient’s ABG results are pH 7.30, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 24. What is the
correct interpretation?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation: The pH is low (acidosis), and the PaCO2 is high, indicating the respiratory
system is the cause.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter is the best indicator of fluid volume status in
a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A. Central Venous Pressure (CVP)
B. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
C. Heart Rate
D. Cardiac Output
Answer: A
Explanation: CVP reflects the pressure in the right atrium and is used to estimate preload
and fluid volume status.
,3. What is the primary pathophysiology behind Acute Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased alveolar-capillary membrane permeability
B. Bronchoconstriction and mucus plugging
C. Left-sided heart failure leading to pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism obstructing blood flow
Answer: A
Explanation: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema and severe hypoxemia.
4. A patient with a high-pressure alarm on their mechanical ventilator likely has
which of the following issues?
A. Biting the endotracheal tube
B. Cuff leak
C. Disconnected tubing
D. Extubation
Answer: A
Explanation: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance, such as biting the tube,
secretions, or kinking. Low-pressure alarms are triggered by leaks or disconnection.
5. A 70kg patient has 40% TBSA burns. Using the Parkland formula
(4mL/kg/%TBSA), how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours?
A. 5,600 mL
B. 11,200 mL
C. 2,800 mL
D. 8,400 mL
Answer: A
Explanation: Total fluid = 4 * 70 * 40 = 11,200 mL. Half is given in the first 8 hours (11,200
/ 2 = 5,600 mL).
, 6. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of Neurogenic Shock?
A. Tachycardia and Hypertension
B. Bradycardia and Hypertension
C. Tachycardia and Hypotension
D. Bradycardia and Hypotension
Answer: D
Explanation: Neurogenic shock involves a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to vasodilation
(hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia (bradycardia).
7. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
most common?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Cellular destruction during burns releases potassium into the extracellular
space, causing hyperkalemia.
8. What is the priority intervention for a patient in Septic Shock?
A. Administering oral antibiotics
B. Starting a vasopressor before fluids
C. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids
D. Providing a high-protein diet
Answer: C
Explanation: Initial management for septic shock involves rapid fluid resuscitation to
restore perfusion.
V3 Updated and Verified Questions and
Answers
1. A patient’s ABG results are pH 7.30, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 24. What is the
correct interpretation?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation: The pH is low (acidosis), and the PaCO2 is high, indicating the respiratory
system is the cause.
2. Which hemodynamic parameter is the best indicator of fluid volume status in
a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A. Central Venous Pressure (CVP)
B. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
C. Heart Rate
D. Cardiac Output
Answer: A
Explanation: CVP reflects the pressure in the right atrium and is used to estimate preload
and fluid volume status.
,3. What is the primary pathophysiology behind Acute Respiratory Distress
Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Increased alveolar-capillary membrane permeability
B. Bronchoconstriction and mucus plugging
C. Left-sided heart failure leading to pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism obstructing blood flow
Answer: A
Explanation: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema and severe hypoxemia.
4. A patient with a high-pressure alarm on their mechanical ventilator likely has
which of the following issues?
A. Biting the endotracheal tube
B. Cuff leak
C. Disconnected tubing
D. Extubation
Answer: A
Explanation: High-pressure alarms are triggered by resistance, such as biting the tube,
secretions, or kinking. Low-pressure alarms are triggered by leaks or disconnection.
5. A 70kg patient has 40% TBSA burns. Using the Parkland formula
(4mL/kg/%TBSA), how much fluid should be given in the first 8 hours?
A. 5,600 mL
B. 11,200 mL
C. 2,800 mL
D. 8,400 mL
Answer: A
Explanation: Total fluid = 4 * 70 * 40 = 11,200 mL. Half is given in the first 8 hours (11,200
/ 2 = 5,600 mL).
, 6. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of Neurogenic Shock?
A. Tachycardia and Hypertension
B. Bradycardia and Hypertension
C. Tachycardia and Hypotension
D. Bradycardia and Hypotension
Answer: D
Explanation: Neurogenic shock involves a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to vasodilation
(hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia (bradycardia).
7. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
most common?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Cellular destruction during burns releases potassium into the extracellular
space, causing hyperkalemia.
8. What is the priority intervention for a patient in Septic Shock?
A. Administering oral antibiotics
B. Starting a vasopressor before fluids
C. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloids
D. Providing a high-protein diet
Answer: C
Explanation: Initial management for septic shock involves rapid fluid resuscitation to
restore perfusion.
