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WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA Exam
2026/2027 Actual Exam | Test Bank with Real
Exam Questions & Quizzes Units 2-7 | Complete
Preparation Bundle with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Unit 2: Cellular Biology and Genetics
Q1: Which of the following is an example of cellular atrophy?
A. Enlargement of the heart due to hypertension
B. Decrease in muscle mass due to immobilization [CORRECT]
C. Increase in breast tissue during pregnancy
D. Thickening of the bladder wall due to obstruction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cell size due to decreased workload, disuse, or lack of
nutritional/hormonal stimulation. Option A represents hypertrophy (increase in cell size). Option
C represents hyperplasia (increase in cell number). Option D represents hypertrophy.
Q2: A patient suffers a myocardial infarction resulting in the death of cardiac cells. Which type
of cellular adaptation or injury does this represent?
A. Metaplasia
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Dysplasia
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Necrosis is the uncontrolled cell death resulting from ischemia or injury, characterized
by cellular swelling and rupture, leading to an inflammatory response. Apoptosis is programmed,
controlled cell death. Metaplasia is reversible replacement of one cell type by another.
Q3: A patient with a history of chronic acid reflux (GERD) develops Barrett’s esophagus. This
change from squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium is an example of:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia [CORRECT]
C. Hyperplasia
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, often in
response to chronic irritation. Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and
organization of mature cells (pre-cancerous).
Q4: Which cellular component is responsible for "programmed cell death"?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Caspase [CORRECT]
D. Mitochondria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Caspases are proteases that mediate apoptosis. While mitochondria are involved in the
intrinsic pathway of apoptosis (release of cytochrome c), caspases are the direct executioners of
the cell.
Q5: A patient has a genetic disorder where both alleles must be mutated for the disease to
manifest. This pattern of inheritance is:
A. Autosomal dominant
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B. Autosomal recessive [CORRECT]
C. X-linked dominant
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autosomal recessive disorders require two mutated alleles (one from each parent) for
the phenotype to be expressed. Autosomal dominant requires only one mutated allele.
Q6: Which of the following describes a "missense" mutation?
A. A change in the DNA sequence that creates a premature stop codon
B. A change in the DNA sequence resulting in a different amino acid being incorporated into the
protein [CORRECT]
C. A change in the DNA sequence that does not change the amino acid sequence
D. A deletion of a large segment of a chromosome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A missense mutation changes a single nucleotide, resulting in a codon that specifies a
different amino acid. A nonsense mutation creates a stop codon. A silent mutation does not
change the amino acid.
Q7: In the context of free radical injury, which cellular component is most susceptible to lipid
peroxidation?
A. DNA
B. Proteins
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell membranes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
, 4
Rationale: Free radicals (reactive oxygen species) cause lipid peroxidation, which damages the
polyunsaturated lipids found in cell membranes, leading to loss of membrane integrity and cell
lysis.
Q8: A patient has a karyotype of XXY. This genetic condition is known as:
A. Turner Syndrome
B. Klinefelter Syndrome [CORRECT]
C. Down Syndrome
D. Edward Syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome aneuploidy (47,XXY). Turner syndrome is
(45,X). Down syndrome is Trisomy 21.
Q9: A tumor is classified as "grade 3." This indicates:
A. The tumor has metastasized to distant sites
B. The tumor cells are well-differentiated
C. The tumor cells are poorly differentiated and aggressive [CORRECT]
D. The tumor is confined to the tissue of origin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Grading refers to the microscopic appearance of the tumor cells (differentiation). High
grade (3 or 4) means the cells look very abnormal and are aggressive. Staging (e.g., TNM) refers
to the extent of spread (Option A).
Q10: Which genetic principle explains why a person with one abnormal gene for sickle cell
anemia (heterozygous) does not have the full disease but is a carrier?
A. Penetrance
B. Expressivity
WGU D115 Advanced Pathophysiology OA Exam
2026/2027 Actual Exam | Test Bank with Real
Exam Questions & Quizzes Units 2-7 | Complete
Preparation Bundle with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Unit 2: Cellular Biology and Genetics
Q1: Which of the following is an example of cellular atrophy?
A. Enlargement of the heart due to hypertension
B. Decrease in muscle mass due to immobilization [CORRECT]
C. Increase in breast tissue during pregnancy
D. Thickening of the bladder wall due to obstruction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cell size due to decreased workload, disuse, or lack of
nutritional/hormonal stimulation. Option A represents hypertrophy (increase in cell size). Option
C represents hyperplasia (increase in cell number). Option D represents hypertrophy.
Q2: A patient suffers a myocardial infarction resulting in the death of cardiac cells. Which type
of cellular adaptation or injury does this represent?
A. Metaplasia
B. Apoptosis
C. Necrosis [CORRECT]
D. Dysplasia
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Necrosis is the uncontrolled cell death resulting from ischemia or injury, characterized
by cellular swelling and rupture, leading to an inflammatory response. Apoptosis is programmed,
controlled cell death. Metaplasia is reversible replacement of one cell type by another.
Q3: A patient with a history of chronic acid reflux (GERD) develops Barrett’s esophagus. This
change from squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium is an example of:
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia [CORRECT]
C. Hyperplasia
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, often in
response to chronic irritation. Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and
organization of mature cells (pre-cancerous).
Q4: Which cellular component is responsible for "programmed cell death"?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Caspase [CORRECT]
D. Mitochondria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Caspases are proteases that mediate apoptosis. While mitochondria are involved in the
intrinsic pathway of apoptosis (release of cytochrome c), caspases are the direct executioners of
the cell.
Q5: A patient has a genetic disorder where both alleles must be mutated for the disease to
manifest. This pattern of inheritance is:
A. Autosomal dominant
,3
B. Autosomal recessive [CORRECT]
C. X-linked dominant
D. Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autosomal recessive disorders require two mutated alleles (one from each parent) for
the phenotype to be expressed. Autosomal dominant requires only one mutated allele.
Q6: Which of the following describes a "missense" mutation?
A. A change in the DNA sequence that creates a premature stop codon
B. A change in the DNA sequence resulting in a different amino acid being incorporated into the
protein [CORRECT]
C. A change in the DNA sequence that does not change the amino acid sequence
D. A deletion of a large segment of a chromosome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A missense mutation changes a single nucleotide, resulting in a codon that specifies a
different amino acid. A nonsense mutation creates a stop codon. A silent mutation does not
change the amino acid.
Q7: In the context of free radical injury, which cellular component is most susceptible to lipid
peroxidation?
A. DNA
B. Proteins
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell membranes [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
, 4
Rationale: Free radicals (reactive oxygen species) cause lipid peroxidation, which damages the
polyunsaturated lipids found in cell membranes, leading to loss of membrane integrity and cell
lysis.
Q8: A patient has a karyotype of XXY. This genetic condition is known as:
A. Turner Syndrome
B. Klinefelter Syndrome [CORRECT]
C. Down Syndrome
D. Edward Syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome aneuploidy (47,XXY). Turner syndrome is
(45,X). Down syndrome is Trisomy 21.
Q9: A tumor is classified as "grade 3." This indicates:
A. The tumor has metastasized to distant sites
B. The tumor cells are well-differentiated
C. The tumor cells are poorly differentiated and aggressive [CORRECT]
D. The tumor is confined to the tissue of origin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Grading refers to the microscopic appearance of the tumor cells (differentiation). High
grade (3 or 4) means the cells look very abnormal and are aggressive. Staging (e.g., TNM) refers
to the extent of spread (Option A).
Q10: Which genetic principle explains why a person with one abnormal gene for sickle cell
anemia (heterozygous) does not have the full disease but is a carrier?
A. Penetrance
B. Expressivity
