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NSG 3130 EXAM 4 FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS NURSING PRACTICE II 2026/2027 | 130 Questions and Correct Answers | Latest Practice Test | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Excel in NSG 3130 Fundamental Concepts and Skills for Nursing Practice II Exam 4 with this comprehensive 2026/2027 latest practice test featuring 130 questions and correct answers. This A+ Graded resource covers all key fundamental nursing domains including safe patient care, mobility and immobility, infection control, medication administration, fluid and electrolyte balance, oxygenation, nutrition, elimination, perioperative nursing, and clinical skills application. Each answer includes thorough rationales to reinforce understanding of core nursing concepts and clinical applications. Perfect for nursing students seeking first-attempt success on their Exam 4. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently achieve top scores. Download your complete NSG 3130 Exam 4 Practice Test guide instantly!

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NSG 3130 EXAM 4 FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS NURSING
PRACTICE II 2026/2027 | 130 Questions and Correct Answers
| Latest Practice Test | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded



Domain 1: Safety & Infection Control (15 Questions)


Q1: A 68-year-old male patient with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
pneumonia is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. The nurse is preparing to administer
oral medications. Which action demonstrates correct transmission-based precautions?


A. Performing hand hygiene before entering the room and wearing a surgical mask
during medication administration


B. Donning a gown and gloves before entering the room and performing hand hygiene
immediately after glove removal


C. Wearing an N95 respirator and face shield during all patient contact


D. Placing the patient in a negative pressure room and wearing a surgical mask when
entering the room


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: Contact precautions require wearing a gown and gloves for direct patient
contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Hand hygiene must be performed

,immediately after glove removal to prevent transmission. Option A is incorrect because
a surgical mask is unnecessary for MRSA (contact precaution, not droplet); masks are
only needed if splash/spray is anticipated. Option C is incorrect because N95
respirators are for airborne precautions (TB, measles, varicella), not contact
precautions. Option D is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are for airborne
isolation; MRSA requires contact precautions only.




Q2: A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a patient with a known latex
allergy. Which action by the nurse demonstrates appropriate safety protocol?


A. Using a latex catheter with powder to reduce friction


B. Selecting a silicone catheter and verifying all supplies are latex-free


C. Applying petroleum jelly to the catheter tip as a lubricant substitute


D. Proceeding with standard catheterization while monitoring for allergic reaction


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: Patients with latex allergies require latex-free environments to prevent
anaphylaxis. Silicone catheters are latex-free and appropriate. Option A is dangerous as
it exposes the patient to allergen. Option C is unsafe—petroleum jelly is not sterile and
can damage latex-free catheters. Option D violates safety standards; exposure
prevention is required, not monitoring during exposure.

,Q3: A nurse discovers a fire in a patient's room. According to the RACE protocol, which
action should the nurse perform first?


A. Activate the fire alarm and notify appropriate personnel


B. Confine the fire by closing doors and windows


C. Extinguish the fire using the appropriate fire extinguisher


D. Evacuate patients from the immediate area


Correct Answer: A


Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue/Remove, Alarm/Alert, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate.
The first step is always to activate the alarm to alert others and initiate the emergency
response system. Option B (Confine) comes after alarming. Option C (Extinguish) is
only appropriate for small, contained fires and after alarm activation. Option D (Rescue)
applies to immediate danger to patients in the fire zone, but institutional protocol
prioritizes alarming to mobilize resources.




Q4: A nurse is caring for a confused elderly patient who repeatedly attempts to remove
his peripheral IV catheter. The provider orders wrist restraints. Which nursing action is
the priority?

, A. Applying the restraints snugly to prevent removal while ensuring one finger fits
between restraint and wrist


B. Securing restraints to the bed rail for easy access and visibility


C. Documenting the rationale, type of restraint, and time applied in the medical record


D. Obtaining a new physician's order every 24 hours as required by facility policy


Correct Answer: A


Rationale: Proper application technique ensures effectiveness while preventing
neurovascular compromise. The "one-finger rule" allows circulation assessment. Option
B is incorrect—restraints must NEVER be tied to bed rails (safety hazard if rail moves).
Option C is necessary but not the priority; patient safety through proper application
comes first. Option D is incorrect because restraint orders typically require renewal
every 24 hours for non-violent restraints, but the immediate priority is safe application.




Q5: A nurse is performing surgical hand asepsis. Which action demonstrates correct
technique?


A. Keeping hands above elbows throughout the scrub procedure


B. Using a brush to scrub under nails for exactly 2 minutes


C. Rinsing hands from fingertips to elbows to carry microorganisms away from hands

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