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AANP FNP certification EXAM 2026/2027 ACTUAL
COMPLETE REAL VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+|| NEWEST EXAM!!!
~ A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis.
Treatment includes prednisone with physical therapy. The
nurse practitioner advises the patient to begin disease-
modifying therapy:
Select only one option.
A
as soon as possible.
B
if symptoms worsen.
C
if symptoms remain the same for 3 months.
D
if MRI of the brain shows a new lesion. - Answer-A
~ A child is diagnosed with radial head subluxation
("nursemaid's elbow"). After closed manipulation, the best
indication of successful treatment is that:
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Select only one option.
A
swelling dissipates immediately.
B
pulse and sensation are restored.
C
the child quickly begins to use the affected arm.
D
a click is felt while the child is extending and rotating the
arm. - Answer-C
~ A middle adult male presents with malaise. Further
questioning reveals that his primary concern is premature
ejaculation. He is currently taking the following
medications: atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg daily; paroxetine
(Paxil), 20 mg daily; loratadine (Claritin-D), 1 tablet daily;
and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), 25 mg daily. The most
likely cause of the patient's concern is:
Select only one option.
A
loratadine (Claritin).
B
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hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).
C
lisinopril (Zestril).
D
paroxetine (Paxil). - Answer-D
~ A young adult reports decreased mobility and pain in the
right shoulder after painting his house yesterday. Passive
range of motion is intact. Active range of motion is causing
pain. Which of the following is the best option for imaging?
Select only one option.
A
None is needed at this time
B
MRI
C
CT scan
D
Plain X-ray, 3 views - Answer-A
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~ A young adult patient experiences a sudden onset of
acute abdominal pain radiating to his groin. The patient
denies any trauma or previous groin injuries. Examination
reveals diffuse swelling of the left testicle and absence of
the cremasteric reflex. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select only one option.
A
testicular cancer.
B
testicular torsion.
C
appendicitis.
D
epididymitis. - Answer-B
~ Which of the following is the non-pharmacological
treatment for an eversion ankle sprain?
Select only one option.
A
Rest, ice, compression, and elevation
B
A heating pad and diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) cream
AANP FNP certification EXAM 2026/2027 ACTUAL
COMPLETE REAL VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+|| NEWEST EXAM!!!
~ A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis.
Treatment includes prednisone with physical therapy. The
nurse practitioner advises the patient to begin disease-
modifying therapy:
Select only one option.
A
as soon as possible.
B
if symptoms worsen.
C
if symptoms remain the same for 3 months.
D
if MRI of the brain shows a new lesion. - Answer-A
~ A child is diagnosed with radial head subluxation
("nursemaid's elbow"). After closed manipulation, the best
indication of successful treatment is that:
,2|Page
Select only one option.
A
swelling dissipates immediately.
B
pulse and sensation are restored.
C
the child quickly begins to use the affected arm.
D
a click is felt while the child is extending and rotating the
arm. - Answer-C
~ A middle adult male presents with malaise. Further
questioning reveals that his primary concern is premature
ejaculation. He is currently taking the following
medications: atenolol (Tenormin), 50 mg daily; paroxetine
(Paxil), 20 mg daily; loratadine (Claritin-D), 1 tablet daily;
and hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), 25 mg daily. The most
likely cause of the patient's concern is:
Select only one option.
A
loratadine (Claritin).
B
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hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).
C
lisinopril (Zestril).
D
paroxetine (Paxil). - Answer-D
~ A young adult reports decreased mobility and pain in the
right shoulder after painting his house yesterday. Passive
range of motion is intact. Active range of motion is causing
pain. Which of the following is the best option for imaging?
Select only one option.
A
None is needed at this time
B
MRI
C
CT scan
D
Plain X-ray, 3 views - Answer-A
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~ A young adult patient experiences a sudden onset of
acute abdominal pain radiating to his groin. The patient
denies any trauma or previous groin injuries. Examination
reveals diffuse swelling of the left testicle and absence of
the cremasteric reflex. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select only one option.
A
testicular cancer.
B
testicular torsion.
C
appendicitis.
D
epididymitis. - Answer-B
~ Which of the following is the non-pharmacological
treatment for an eversion ankle sprain?
Select only one option.
A
Rest, ice, compression, and elevation
B
A heating pad and diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) cream
