CEA Prep Full Practice Exam Study Guide 1 of 95 2026-03-23
CEA Prep Full Practice
Exam Study Guide
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Page 1 of 95 CEA Prep Full Practice Exam Study Guide.pdf
,CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 2 of 95 2026-03-23
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade Left upper lobe lingula
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. upper lobe lingula.
The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is Diastolic dysfunction
a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been Calcium channel blocker
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc)
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to modifications.
prescribe him?
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending CT angiography of the chest
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
standard of care for serial surveillance? luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's
timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms
at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Page 2 of 95 Page 2 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
,CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 3 of 95 2026-03-23
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 phenylephrine
stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all
have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents Congestive heart failure
with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart
she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is
possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their
manage this patient after discharge, which medication EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
care? Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk Caucasians
of cardiac disease? Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are
at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes,
and obesity than Caucasians.
Page 3 of 95 Page 3 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
, CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 4 of 95 2026-03-23
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. a statin drug.
She is a smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in
controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary
heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 disease history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the
therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should most aggressive therapy option of these four listed.
start the patient on:
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly Peripheral neuropathy
caused by uncontrolled hypertension? Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy,
it is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in
non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are
all caused by uncontrolled hypertension.
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing Genetic predisposition
all the following except? Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent
modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk
factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of
prevention.
Page 4 of 95 Page 4 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
CEA Prep Full Practice
Exam Study Guide
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Page 1 of 95 CEA Prep Full Practice Exam Study Guide.pdf
,CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 2 of 95 2026-03-23
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade Left upper lobe lingula
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
of consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. upper lobe lingula.
The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is Diastolic dysfunction
a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been Calcium channel blocker
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc)
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to modifications.
prescribe him?
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending CT angiography of the chest
aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring vascular
standard of care for serial surveillance? luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's
timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large aneurysms
at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Page 2 of 95 Page 2 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
,CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 3 of 95 2026-03-23
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 phenylephrine
stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all
have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents Congestive heart failure
with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart
she has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular venous extension
lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is
possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable
who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due
diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their
manage this patient after discharge, which medication EF is required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
care? Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk Caucasians
of cardiac disease? Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are
at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes,
and obesity than Caucasians.
Page 3 of 95 Page 3 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
, CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam 4 of 95 2026-03-23
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. a statin drug.
She is a smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption inhibitors may be useful in
controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a reducing ASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary
heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 disease history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far from an LDL
mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for statin therapy, which represents the
therapeutic lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner should most aggressive therapy option of these four listed.
start the patient on:
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly Peripheral neuropathy
caused by uncontrolled hypertension? Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy,
it is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and is commonly found in
non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are
all caused by uncontrolled hypertension.
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing Genetic predisposition
all the following except? Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent
modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable risk
factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of
prevention.
Page 4 of 95 Page 4 CEA Prep_ Full Practice Exam.pdf
