OB/Pediatric EMT FISDAP Exam Questions and Answers 2025/2026
Ultimate Mega Bundle | Complete EMS Obstetrics and Pediatric Care Study
Guide for EMT & Paramedic Students, Covering Pregnancy Emergencies,
Labor and Delivery, Neonatal Resuscitation, Pediatric Assessment Triangle,
Respiratory and Medical Emergencies, Trauma Care, Practice Test Bank
with Verified Answers, Detailed Rationales, and NREMT Exam Preparation
Strategies
Question 1: During the initial assessment of a pregnant patient in labor, which finding indicates
imminent delivery?
A. Contractions occurring every 10 minutes
B. Patient reports feeling the urge to push
C. Rupture of membranes with clear fluid
D. Mild lower back discomfort
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patient reports feeling the urge to push
RATIONALE: The urge to push (bearing down sensation) typically indicates that the fetal head is
descending and pressing on the rectum, signaling that the second stage of labor is beginning and
delivery is imminent. While rupture of membranes and regular contractions are signs of labor
progression, they do not specifically indicate that birth is immediate. Back discomfort is common in early
labor and is not a reliable predictor of imminent delivery.
Question 2: What is the normal APGAR score range for a healthy newborn at 1 minute of life?
A. 0–3
B. 4–6
C. 7–10
D. 11–15
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 7–10
RATIONALE: The APGAR score assesses a newborn's transition to extrauterine life at 1 and 5 minutes.
Scores range from 0 to 10, with 7–10 considered normal, indicating the infant is adapting well. Scores of
4–6 indicate moderate difficulty requiring some intervention, and 0–3 indicate severe distress requiring
immediate resuscitation. Scores above 10 are not possible as the scale maxes at 10.
Question 3: Which pediatric age group is defined as a child between 1 month and 1 year of age?
A. Neonate
B. Infant
C. Toddler
D. Preschooler
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Infant
,RATIONALE: In pediatric EMS classification, an infant is defined as a child from 1 month to 1 year of
age. A neonate refers to the first 28 days of life. Toddlers are aged 1–3 years, and preschoolers are 3–5
years. Accurate age categorization is essential for appropriate assessment, equipment selection, and
intervention.
Question 4: A 3-year-old child presents with stridor, drooling, and a preference to sit upright. Which
condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiolitis
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epiglottitis
RATIONALE: Epiglottitis is a life-threatening bacterial infection causing inflammation of the epiglottis.
Classic signs include acute onset of high fever, stridor, drooling (due to inability to swallow), and tripod
positioning to maintain airway patency. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and is less acute.
Asthma involves wheezing and prolonged expiration, while bronchiolitis features crackles and tachypnea
in infants.
Question 5: What is the most appropriate initial intervention for a newborn with a heart rate of 80
beats per minute after birth?
A. Administer blow-by oxygen
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
D. Suction the mouth and nose aggressively
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
RATIONALE: According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, a heart rate below 100 bpm after initial
steps (drying, warming, positioning, clearing airway if needed) indicates the need for positive-pressure
ventilation (PPV). Chest compressions are initiated only if the heart rate remains below 60 bpm after 30
seconds of effective PPV. Blow-by oxygen is insufficient for bradycardia, and aggressive suctioning can
cause vagal stimulation and worsen bradycardia.
Question 6: Which sign is MOST indicative of compensated shock in a pediatric patient?
A. Hypotension
B. Altered mental status
C. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
D. Cyanosis of the extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
RATIONALE: In compensated shock, pediatric patients maintain blood pressure through tachycardia
and peripheral vasoconstriction. Hypotension is a late and ominous sign indicating decompensated
,shock. Altered mental status and cyanosis may occur in later stages. Early recognition of tachycardia
with preserved perfusion allows timely intervention before deterioration.
Question 7: During delivery, if the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina before the infant, what
is the EMT's immediate action?
A. Clamp and cut the cord
B. Push the cord back into the uterus
C. Place the mother in a knee-chest position
D. Apply gentle traction to the cord
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Place the mother in a knee-chest position
RATIONALE: A prolapsed cord is an obstetric emergency where the cord precedes the fetus and can
become compressed, compromising fetal oxygenation. Placing the mother in a knee-chest or
Trendelenburg position uses gravity to relieve pressure on the cord. Never push the cord back in or
apply traction, as this can cause cord avulsion or worsen compression. Prepare for rapid transport and
continuous monitoring.
Question 8: What is the normal respiratory rate range for a preschool-aged child (3–5 years)?
A. 12–20 breaths per minute
B. 20–30 breaths per minute
C. 30–40 breaths per minute
D. 40–60 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 20–30 breaths per minute
RATIONALE: Age-appropriate vital signs are critical in pediatric assessment. For preschoolers (3–5
years), the normal respiratory rate is 20–30 breaths per minute. Infants have higher rates (30–60),
toddlers 24–40, and school-age children 18–30. Recognizing deviations helps identify respiratory distress
or failure early.
Question 9: Which intervention is within the EMT scope for a pediatric patient experiencing a febrile
seizure?
A. Administer rectal diazepam
B. Place the child in a supine position with head elevated
C. Protect the child from injury and maintain airway
D. Apply cold packs to the forehead and extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Protect the child from injury and maintain airway
RATIONALE: EMTs manage febrile seizures by ensuring scene safety, protecting the child from trauma
during convulsions, positioning to maintain airway patency, and providing oxygen if needed.
Administering anticonvulsants like diazepam is beyond EMT scope. Supine positioning with head
elevation is not recommended during active seizure; recovery position is preferred post-ictally. Cold
packs are not indicated and may cause shivering, increasing metabolic demand.
, Question 10: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Uterine rupture
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placenta previa
RATIONALE: Placenta previa involves implantation of the placenta over or near the cervical os, causing
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester. Placental abruption typically
presents with painful, dark red bleeding and uterine tenderness. Ectopic pregnancy occurs early in
gestation with unilateral pain. Uterine rupture is rare and associated with severe pain and signs of
shock.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
A. To calculate medication dosages
B. To rapidly identify life threats through appearance, work of breathing, and circulation
C. To determine the child's developmental stage
D. To assess for signs of abuse
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To rapidly identify life threats through appearance, work of breathing, and
circulation
RATIONALE: The PAT is a rapid, hands-off assessment tool used to form a general impression and
identify physiologic instability. Its three components—appearance (tone, interactiveness, consolability,
look/gaze, cry), work of breathing (abnormal sounds, retractions, positioning), and circulation to skin
(pallor, mottling, cyanosis)—allow EMTs to recognize sick vs. not sick and prioritize interventions.
Question 12: Which finding in a newborn requires immediate intervention during the initial
assessment?
A. Acrocyanosis
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Grunting respirations
D. Vernix caseosa on skin
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Grunting respirations
RATIONALE: Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress, indicating the infant is attempting to maintain
alveolar expansion by exhaling against a partially closed glottis. This requires immediate airway and
breathing support. Acrocyanosis (blue hands/feet) is normal in the first 24 hours. A heart rate above 100
bpm is reassuring. Vernix is a protective coating and not pathological.
Question 13: What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in pediatric patients?
A. Primary cardiac arrhythmia
B. Respiratory failure or shock
Ultimate Mega Bundle | Complete EMS Obstetrics and Pediatric Care Study
Guide for EMT & Paramedic Students, Covering Pregnancy Emergencies,
Labor and Delivery, Neonatal Resuscitation, Pediatric Assessment Triangle,
Respiratory and Medical Emergencies, Trauma Care, Practice Test Bank
with Verified Answers, Detailed Rationales, and NREMT Exam Preparation
Strategies
Question 1: During the initial assessment of a pregnant patient in labor, which finding indicates
imminent delivery?
A. Contractions occurring every 10 minutes
B. Patient reports feeling the urge to push
C. Rupture of membranes with clear fluid
D. Mild lower back discomfort
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patient reports feeling the urge to push
RATIONALE: The urge to push (bearing down sensation) typically indicates that the fetal head is
descending and pressing on the rectum, signaling that the second stage of labor is beginning and
delivery is imminent. While rupture of membranes and regular contractions are signs of labor
progression, they do not specifically indicate that birth is immediate. Back discomfort is common in early
labor and is not a reliable predictor of imminent delivery.
Question 2: What is the normal APGAR score range for a healthy newborn at 1 minute of life?
A. 0–3
B. 4–6
C. 7–10
D. 11–15
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 7–10
RATIONALE: The APGAR score assesses a newborn's transition to extrauterine life at 1 and 5 minutes.
Scores range from 0 to 10, with 7–10 considered normal, indicating the infant is adapting well. Scores of
4–6 indicate moderate difficulty requiring some intervention, and 0–3 indicate severe distress requiring
immediate resuscitation. Scores above 10 are not possible as the scale maxes at 10.
Question 3: Which pediatric age group is defined as a child between 1 month and 1 year of age?
A. Neonate
B. Infant
C. Toddler
D. Preschooler
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Infant
,RATIONALE: In pediatric EMS classification, an infant is defined as a child from 1 month to 1 year of
age. A neonate refers to the first 28 days of life. Toddlers are aged 1–3 years, and preschoolers are 3–5
years. Accurate age categorization is essential for appropriate assessment, equipment selection, and
intervention.
Question 4: A 3-year-old child presents with stridor, drooling, and a preference to sit upright. Which
condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Croup
B. Epiglottitis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiolitis
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Epiglottitis
RATIONALE: Epiglottitis is a life-threatening bacterial infection causing inflammation of the epiglottis.
Classic signs include acute onset of high fever, stridor, drooling (due to inability to swallow), and tripod
positioning to maintain airway patency. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and is less acute.
Asthma involves wheezing and prolonged expiration, while bronchiolitis features crackles and tachypnea
in infants.
Question 5: What is the most appropriate initial intervention for a newborn with a heart rate of 80
beats per minute after birth?
A. Administer blow-by oxygen
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
D. Suction the mouth and nose aggressively
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
RATIONALE: According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, a heart rate below 100 bpm after initial
steps (drying, warming, positioning, clearing airway if needed) indicates the need for positive-pressure
ventilation (PPV). Chest compressions are initiated only if the heart rate remains below 60 bpm after 30
seconds of effective PPV. Blow-by oxygen is insufficient for bradycardia, and aggressive suctioning can
cause vagal stimulation and worsen bradycardia.
Question 6: Which sign is MOST indicative of compensated shock in a pediatric patient?
A. Hypotension
B. Altered mental status
C. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
D. Cyanosis of the extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tachycardia with normal blood pressure
RATIONALE: In compensated shock, pediatric patients maintain blood pressure through tachycardia
and peripheral vasoconstriction. Hypotension is a late and ominous sign indicating decompensated
,shock. Altered mental status and cyanosis may occur in later stages. Early recognition of tachycardia
with preserved perfusion allows timely intervention before deterioration.
Question 7: During delivery, if the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina before the infant, what
is the EMT's immediate action?
A. Clamp and cut the cord
B. Push the cord back into the uterus
C. Place the mother in a knee-chest position
D. Apply gentle traction to the cord
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Place the mother in a knee-chest position
RATIONALE: A prolapsed cord is an obstetric emergency where the cord precedes the fetus and can
become compressed, compromising fetal oxygenation. Placing the mother in a knee-chest or
Trendelenburg position uses gravity to relieve pressure on the cord. Never push the cord back in or
apply traction, as this can cause cord avulsion or worsen compression. Prepare for rapid transport and
continuous monitoring.
Question 8: What is the normal respiratory rate range for a preschool-aged child (3–5 years)?
A. 12–20 breaths per minute
B. 20–30 breaths per minute
C. 30–40 breaths per minute
D. 40–60 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 20–30 breaths per minute
RATIONALE: Age-appropriate vital signs are critical in pediatric assessment. For preschoolers (3–5
years), the normal respiratory rate is 20–30 breaths per minute. Infants have higher rates (30–60),
toddlers 24–40, and school-age children 18–30. Recognizing deviations helps identify respiratory distress
or failure early.
Question 9: Which intervention is within the EMT scope for a pediatric patient experiencing a febrile
seizure?
A. Administer rectal diazepam
B. Place the child in a supine position with head elevated
C. Protect the child from injury and maintain airway
D. Apply cold packs to the forehead and extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Protect the child from injury and maintain airway
RATIONALE: EMTs manage febrile seizures by ensuring scene safety, protecting the child from trauma
during convulsions, positioning to maintain airway patency, and providing oxygen if needed.
Administering anticonvulsants like diazepam is beyond EMT scope. Supine positioning with head
elevation is not recommended during active seizure; recovery position is preferred post-ictally. Cold
packs are not indicated and may cause shivering, increasing metabolic demand.
, Question 10: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Uterine rupture
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Placenta previa
RATIONALE: Placenta previa involves implantation of the placenta over or near the cervical os, causing
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester. Placental abruption typically
presents with painful, dark red bleeding and uterine tenderness. Ectopic pregnancy occurs early in
gestation with unilateral pain. Uterine rupture is rare and associated with severe pain and signs of
shock.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?
A. To calculate medication dosages
B. To rapidly identify life threats through appearance, work of breathing, and circulation
C. To determine the child's developmental stage
D. To assess for signs of abuse
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To rapidly identify life threats through appearance, work of breathing, and
circulation
RATIONALE: The PAT is a rapid, hands-off assessment tool used to form a general impression and
identify physiologic instability. Its three components—appearance (tone, interactiveness, consolability,
look/gaze, cry), work of breathing (abnormal sounds, retractions, positioning), and circulation to skin
(pallor, mottling, cyanosis)—allow EMTs to recognize sick vs. not sick and prioritize interventions.
Question 12: Which finding in a newborn requires immediate intervention during the initial
assessment?
A. Acrocyanosis
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Grunting respirations
D. Vernix caseosa on skin
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Grunting respirations
RATIONALE: Grunting is a sign of respiratory distress, indicating the infant is attempting to maintain
alveolar expansion by exhaling against a partially closed glottis. This requires immediate airway and
breathing support. Acrocyanosis (blue hands/feet) is normal in the first 24 hours. A heart rate above 100
bpm is reassuring. Vernix is a protective coating and not pathological.
Question 13: What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in pediatric patients?
A. Primary cardiac arrhythmia
B. Respiratory failure or shock
