NUR2513 Maternal-Child Nursing Final Exam
Rasmussen College 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
Verified Grade A Questions and Answers | Pass
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Section 1: Maternal-Newborn Nursing (50 Questions)
Antepartum Care (10 Questions)
Q1: A pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Reassure the patient that fetal movement decreases in the third trimester
B. Instruct the patient to drink cold juice, lie on her left side, and count movements for 2
hours [CORRECT]
C. Schedule an ultrasound for the next day
D. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Decreased fetal movement requires immediate assessment.
Cold juice + left lateral position stimulates fetal activity.
<10 movements in 2 hours → notify provider (possible fetal distress).
Q2: A patient at 16 weeks gestation has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT).
What is the next step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes (GDM)
B. Order a 3-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) [CORRECT]
C. Start insulin therapy immediately
D. Recommend a low-carb diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
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Positive 1-hour GCT → 3-hour GTT for diagnosis.
GDM diagnosed if ≥2 abnormal values on GTT.
Q3: A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for which complication?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration [CORRECT]
C. Preeclampsia
D. Placenta previa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum: Severe nausea/vomiting → dehydration, electrolyte imbalances
(↓K+, ↓Na+), weight loss.
Options A, C, and D are not directly related.
Q4: A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain.
The nurse suspects placental abruption. Which finding supports this diagnosis?
A. Bright red bleeding with no pain
B. Dark red bleeding with a firm, tender uterus [CORRECT]
C. Painless, bright red bleeding after intercourse
D. Mild cramping with mucous discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Placental abruption: Dark red bleeding, firm/tender uterus, fetal distress.
Option A: Placenta previa.
Option C: Bloody show (normal).
Option D: Early labor.
Q5: A patient with preeclampsia has a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg and 3+
proteinuria. Which medication is FIRST-LINE for seizure prophylaxis?
A. Labetalol
B. Magnesium sulfate [CORRECT]
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C. Hydralazine
D. Nifedipine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Magnesium sulfate: First-line for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia.
Options A, C, and D are for BP control, not seizure prevention.
Q6: A patient at 36 weeks gestation reports severe heartburn. Which non-pharmacologic
intervention should the nurse recommend?
A. Lie flat after meals
B. Eat small, frequent meals and avoid spicy foods [CORRECT]
C. Drink peppermint tea
D. Take sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
GERD in pregnancy: Small, frequent meals reduce reflux; avoid spicy/fatty foods.
Options A, C, and D worsen symptoms or are unsafe.
Q7: A patient with gestational diabetes (GDM) asks about blood glucose goals. Which
response is correct?
A. "Fasting glucose should be <120 mg/dL."
B. "Fasting glucose should be <95 mg/dL." [CORRECT]
C. "Postprandial glucose should be <180 mg/dL."
D. "You should check your blood sugar once daily."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
GDM targets:
Fasting: <95 mg/dL.
1-hour postprandial: <140 mg/dL.
2-hour postprandial: <120 mg/dL.
Option C is incorrect (should be <140 mg/dL at 1 hour).
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Option D is insufficient (should be 4x/day).
Q8: A patient at 34 weeks gestation has preterm labor. Which medication is used to delay
delivery for fetal lung maturity?
A. Oxytocin
B. Terbutaline [CORRECT]
C. Misoprostol
D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Terbutaline: Tocolytic (delays labor for 48 hours to administer betamethasone for fetal lung
maturity).
Option A induces labor.
Option C induces labor.
Option D is for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Q9: A patient with group B streptococcus (GBS) colonization is in labor. Which
intervention is required?
A. Administer penicillin G IV during labor [CORRECT]
B. Perform a cesarean section
C. Administer erythromycin orally
D. No intervention is needed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
GBS+ in labor: Penicillin G IV (or ampicillin) ≥4 hours before delivery to prevent neonatal
sepsis.
Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Q10: A patient at 20 weeks gestation has a short cervix on ultrasound. Which intervention
may be recommended?
A. Cervical cerclage [CORRECT]
B. Immediate induction of labor