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NR 565 Week 8 Final Exam Pharmacology 2026 – Complete Questions & Verified Answers | Nursing Pharmacology Study Guide | Instant Download

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Prepare for NR 565 Week 8 Final Exam (Pharmacology) with this complete 2026 study resource. Includes verified questions with detailed answers and rationales covering ACE inhibitors, ARBs, potassium-sparing diuretics, metformin management, pregnancy contraindications, warfarin and INR monitoring, fluoroquinolone side effects, insulin therapy, beta blockers, levothyroxine administration, statin monitoring, neuropathic pain management, and beta-2 agonist side effects. Ideal for nursing students and practicing RNs seeking to reinforce pharmacology knowledge, improve exam readiness, and excel on final exams. Instant download allows immediate study for exam-focused preparation.

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NR 565 WEEK 8 FINAL EXAM PHARMACOLOGY |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST
EXAM


1. A patient taking lisinopril develops a persistent dry cough. What is the best action?

A. Discontinue lisinopril and start losartan
B. Increase the dose of lisinopril
C. Add a beta blocker
D. Reassure the patient and continue therapy

Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can cause a dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation. Switching to an ARB like losartan eliminates this effect.

2. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely in a patient taking spironolactone?

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium

Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia.
Potassium levels must be monitored regularly.

3. A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. When should the medication be
temporarily discontinued?

A. During treatment for hypertension
B. Before contrast-enhanced imaging
C. When fasting for lab work
D. If blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL

Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin should be held before and after contrast studies due to risk of lactic
acidosis in patients with renal impairment.

4. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?

A. Labetalol
B. Methyldopa

,C. Enalapril
D. Nifedipine

Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors such as enalapril are teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy
due to risk of fetal renal damage.

5. A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 5.5 without bleeding. What is the best
intervention?

A. Administer vitamin K IM
B. Continue current dose
C. Increase dose
D. Hold warfarin temporarily

Answer: D
Rationale: An INR above therapeutic range without bleeding requires holding warfarin
temporarily to reduce bleeding risk.

6. Which antibiotic is associated with tendon rupture?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Azithromycin

Answer: C
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones such as ciprofloxacin are associated with tendonitis and tendon
rupture.

7. A patient on insulin glargine should be instructed that this insulin:

A. Peaks in 2 hours
B. Is short acting
C. Must be mixed with regular insulin
D. Has no pronounced peak

Answer: D
Rationale: Insulin glargine is long-acting and provides steady basal insulin without a
pronounced peak.

8. Which medication is first-line for stable angina?

A. Nitroglycerin
B. Propranolol

,C. Amlodipine
D. Digoxin

Answer: B
Rationale: Beta blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and are first-line therapy for
chronic stable angina.

9. A patient taking levothyroxine should be instructed to take the medication:

A. With food
B. At bedtime with milk
C. On an empty stomach
D. With iron supplements

Answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption.

10. Which medication requires monitoring of liver function tests?

A. Atorvastatin
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Metoprolol
D. Insulin

Answer: A
Rationale: Statins may elevate liver enzymes; LFTs should be monitored periodically.

11. Which medication is preferred for neuropathic pain?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Gabapentin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Prednisone

Answer: B
Rationale: Gabapentin is effective for neuropathic pain due to its action on calcium channels.

12. A patient taking albuterol reports tremors. This side effect is due to:

A. Beta-1 stimulation
B. Muscarinic blockade
C. Alpha activation
D. Beta-2 stimulation

Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta-2 receptors, which can cause tremors and tachycardia.

, 13. Which medication is appropriate for acute migraine treatment?

A. Propranolol
B. Amitriptyline
C. Sumatriptan
D. Topiramate

Answer: C
Rationale: Sumatriptan is a triptan used for abortive migraine therapy.

14. A patient with GERD is prescribed omeprazole. This drug works by:

A. Blocking H2 receptors
B. Neutralizing stomach acid
C. Inhibiting proton pumps
D. Coating the stomach lining

Answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that suppresses gastric acid secretion.

15. Which medication should not be crushed?

A. Immediate-release metformin
B. Enteric-coated aspirin
C. Prednisone
D. Amoxicillin

Answer: B
Rationale: Enteric-coated tablets should not be crushed because this destroys the protective
coating.

16. A patient taking digoxin shows nausea and visual halos. What is suspected?

A. Hypokalemia
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Dehydration

Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and visual disturbances are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.

17. Which medication is used for smoking cessation?

A. Bupropion
B. Fluoxetine

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