NUR 265 Exam 1
NUR 265 Exam Med Surg Nursing Galen
college Actual Exam 1 VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS
A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, "Why is so much of my hair falling out
each day?" Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?
A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.
B) Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.
C) Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.
D) The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.
A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.
The common adverse effects of chemotherapy (nausea, vomiting, alopecia, bone marrow
depression) are due to chemotherapy's effect on the rapidly reproducing cells, both normal and
, NUR 265 Exam 2
malignant (A). (B and D) do not provide correct information about chemotherapy-induced
alopecia. Although (D) is a true statement, it does not effectively answer the client's question.
A client reports unprotected sexual intercourse one week ago and is worried about HIV
exposure. An initial HIV antibody screen (ELISA) is obtained. The nurse teaches the client that
seroconversion to HIV positive relies on antibody production by B lymphocytes after exposure
to the virus. When should the nurse recommend the client return for repeat blood testing?
A) 6 to 18 months.
B) 1 to 12 months.
C) 1 to 18 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks.
Although the HIV antigen is detectable approximately 2 weeks after exposure, seroconversion
to HIV positive may take up to 6 to 12 weeks (D) after exposure, so the client should return to
repeat the serum screen for the presence of HIV antibodies during that time frame. (A) will
delay treatment if the client tests positive. (B and C) may provide inaccurate results because the
time frame maybe too early to reevaluate the client.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her
menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should
the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of
endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas
of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding associated with
endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological complaints, the
most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
, NUR 265 Exam 3
The nurse is completing an admission interview and assessment on a client with a history of
Parkinson's disease. Which question should provide information relevant to the client's plan of
care?
A) Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs?
B) Have you ever sustained a severe head injury?
C) Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
D) Do you have headaches, especially ones with throbbing pain?
C) Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
Clients with Parkinson's disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating, maintaining, and
performing motor activities. They may even experience being rooted to the spot and unable to
move (C). Parkinson's disease does not cause (A). Parkinson's disease is not usually associated
with (B), nor does it typically cause (D).
A female client requests information about using the calendar method of contraception. Which
assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A) Amount of weight gain or weight loss during the previous year.
B) An accurate menstrual cycle diary for the past 6 to 12 months.
C) Skin pigmentation and hair texture for evidence of hormonal changes.
D) Previous birth-control methods and beliefs about the calendar method.
B) An accurate menstrual cycle diary for the past 6 to 12 months.
The fertile period, which occurs 2 weeks prior to the onset of menses, is determined using an
accurate record of the number of days of the menstrual cycles for the past 6 months, so it is
most important to emphasize to the client that accuracy and compliancy of a menstrual diary
(B) is the basis of the calendar method. (A and C) may be partially related to hormonal
fluctuations but are not indicators for using the calendar method. (D) may demonstrate client
understanding and compliancy but is not the most important aspect.
The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH),
which is manifested by which symptoms?
A) Loss of thirst, weight gain.
B) Dependent edema, fever.
C) Polydipsia, polyuria.
D) Hypernatremia, tachypnea.
A) Loss of thirst, weight gain.
SIADH occurs when the posterior pituitary gland releases too much ADH, causing water
retention, a urine output of less than 20 ml/hour, and dilutional hyponatremia. Other
indications of SIADH are loss of thirst, weight gain (A), irritability, muscle weakness, and
decreased level of consciousness. (B) is not associated with SIADH. (C) is a finding associated
with diabetes insipidus (a water metabolism problem caused by an ADH deficiency), not
SIADH. The increase in plasma volume causes an increase in the glomerular filtration rate that
, NUR 265 Exam 4
inhibits the release of rennin and aldosterone, which results in an increased sodium loss in
urine, leading to greater hyponatremia, not (D).
What types of medications should the nurse expect to administer to a client during an acute
respiratory distress episode?
A) Vasodilators and hormones.
B) Analgesics and sedatives.
C) Anticoagulants and expectorants.
D) Bronchodilators and steroids.
D) Bronchodilators and steroids.
Besides supplemental oxygen, the ARDS client needs medications to widen air passages,
increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation, i.e., bronchodilators and
steroids (D). (A) would not help the condition. (B) would further depress the client and
compromise the ability to breathe. Anticoagulants would be contraindicated since clotting of
the blood is not yet a problem, and expectorants are not appropriate for this critically ill client
(C).
Which postmenopausal client's complaint should the nurse refer to the healthcare provider?
A) Breasts feel lumpy when palpated.
B) History of white nipple discharge.
C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding.
D) Excessive diaphoresis occurs at night.
C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding.
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding (C) may be an indication of endometrial cancer, which should be
reported to the healthcare provider. Compared to a new-onset of a single lump, breasts that feel lumpy (A)
overall may be a normal variant or a finding consistent with nonmalignant fibrocystic disease. Up to
80% of women experience (B), depending on sexual stimulation or hormonal levels, and is no longer
recommended as a reportable symptom when discovered during breast self-exam (BSE). The client may
need further teaching concerning (D), a disturbing symptom, but it is not as important as (C).
Dysrhythmias are a concern for any client. However, the presence of a dysrhythmia is more
serious in an elderly person because
A) elderly persons usually live alone and cannot summon help when symptoms appear.
B) elderly persons are more likely to eat high-fat diets which make them susceptible to heart
disease.
C) cardiac symptoms, such as confusion, are more difficult to recognize in the elderly.
D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result in dizziness and
falls.
D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result in dizziness and
falls.
Cardiac output is decreased with aging (D). Because of loss of contractility and elasticity, blood
NUR 265 Exam Med Surg Nursing Galen
college Actual Exam 1 VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS
A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, "Why is so much of my hair falling out
each day?" Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?
A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.
B) Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.
C) Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.
D) The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.
A) Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.
The common adverse effects of chemotherapy (nausea, vomiting, alopecia, bone marrow
depression) are due to chemotherapy's effect on the rapidly reproducing cells, both normal and
, NUR 265 Exam 2
malignant (A). (B and D) do not provide correct information about chemotherapy-induced
alopecia. Although (D) is a true statement, it does not effectively answer the client's question.
A client reports unprotected sexual intercourse one week ago and is worried about HIV
exposure. An initial HIV antibody screen (ELISA) is obtained. The nurse teaches the client that
seroconversion to HIV positive relies on antibody production by B lymphocytes after exposure
to the virus. When should the nurse recommend the client return for repeat blood testing?
A) 6 to 18 months.
B) 1 to 12 months.
C) 1 to 18 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks.
D) 6 to 12 weeks.
Although the HIV antigen is detectable approximately 2 weeks after exposure, seroconversion
to HIV positive may take up to 6 to 12 weeks (D) after exposure, so the client should return to
repeat the serum screen for the presence of HIV antibodies during that time frame. (A) will
delay treatment if the client tests positive. (B and C) may provide inaccurate results because the
time frame maybe too early to reevaluate the client.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her
menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should
the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
Dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and difficulty or painful defecation are common symptoms of
endometriosis, which is the abnormal displacement of endometrial tissue in the dependent areas
of the pelvic peritoneum. A history of infertility (B) is another common finding associated with
endometriosis. Although (A, C, and D) are common, nonspecific gynecological complaints, the
most common complaints of the client with endometriosis are pain and infertility.
, NUR 265 Exam 3
The nurse is completing an admission interview and assessment on a client with a history of
Parkinson's disease. Which question should provide information relevant to the client's plan of
care?
A) Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs?
B) Have you ever sustained a severe head injury?
C) Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
D) Do you have headaches, especially ones with throbbing pain?
C) Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move?
Clients with Parkinson's disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating, maintaining, and
performing motor activities. They may even experience being rooted to the spot and unable to
move (C). Parkinson's disease does not cause (A). Parkinson's disease is not usually associated
with (B), nor does it typically cause (D).
A female client requests information about using the calendar method of contraception. Which
assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A) Amount of weight gain or weight loss during the previous year.
B) An accurate menstrual cycle diary for the past 6 to 12 months.
C) Skin pigmentation and hair texture for evidence of hormonal changes.
D) Previous birth-control methods and beliefs about the calendar method.
B) An accurate menstrual cycle diary for the past 6 to 12 months.
The fertile period, which occurs 2 weeks prior to the onset of menses, is determined using an
accurate record of the number of days of the menstrual cycles for the past 6 months, so it is
most important to emphasize to the client that accuracy and compliancy of a menstrual diary
(B) is the basis of the calendar method. (A and C) may be partially related to hormonal
fluctuations but are not indicators for using the calendar method. (D) may demonstrate client
understanding and compliancy but is not the most important aspect.
The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH),
which is manifested by which symptoms?
A) Loss of thirst, weight gain.
B) Dependent edema, fever.
C) Polydipsia, polyuria.
D) Hypernatremia, tachypnea.
A) Loss of thirst, weight gain.
SIADH occurs when the posterior pituitary gland releases too much ADH, causing water
retention, a urine output of less than 20 ml/hour, and dilutional hyponatremia. Other
indications of SIADH are loss of thirst, weight gain (A), irritability, muscle weakness, and
decreased level of consciousness. (B) is not associated with SIADH. (C) is a finding associated
with diabetes insipidus (a water metabolism problem caused by an ADH deficiency), not
SIADH. The increase in plasma volume causes an increase in the glomerular filtration rate that
, NUR 265 Exam 4
inhibits the release of rennin and aldosterone, which results in an increased sodium loss in
urine, leading to greater hyponatremia, not (D).
What types of medications should the nurse expect to administer to a client during an acute
respiratory distress episode?
A) Vasodilators and hormones.
B) Analgesics and sedatives.
C) Anticoagulants and expectorants.
D) Bronchodilators and steroids.
D) Bronchodilators and steroids.
Besides supplemental oxygen, the ARDS client needs medications to widen air passages,
increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation, i.e., bronchodilators and
steroids (D). (A) would not help the condition. (B) would further depress the client and
compromise the ability to breathe. Anticoagulants would be contraindicated since clotting of
the blood is not yet a problem, and expectorants are not appropriate for this critically ill client
(C).
Which postmenopausal client's complaint should the nurse refer to the healthcare provider?
A) Breasts feel lumpy when palpated.
B) History of white nipple discharge.
C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding.
D) Excessive diaphoresis occurs at night.
C) Episodes of vaginal bleeding.
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding (C) may be an indication of endometrial cancer, which should be
reported to the healthcare provider. Compared to a new-onset of a single lump, breasts that feel lumpy (A)
overall may be a normal variant or a finding consistent with nonmalignant fibrocystic disease. Up to
80% of women experience (B), depending on sexual stimulation or hormonal levels, and is no longer
recommended as a reportable symptom when discovered during breast self-exam (BSE). The client may
need further teaching concerning (D), a disturbing symptom, but it is not as important as (C).
Dysrhythmias are a concern for any client. However, the presence of a dysrhythmia is more
serious in an elderly person because
A) elderly persons usually live alone and cannot summon help when symptoms appear.
B) elderly persons are more likely to eat high-fat diets which make them susceptible to heart
disease.
C) cardiac symptoms, such as confusion, are more difficult to recognize in the elderly.
D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result in dizziness and
falls.
D) elderly persons are intolerant of decreased cardiac output which may result in dizziness and
falls.
Cardiac output is decreased with aging (D). Because of loss of contractility and elasticity, blood
