VIRTUAL ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
increasing dyspnea and has a SpO₂ of 88% on room air. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
B. Increase the oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula.
C. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Answer: C. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing.
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation and prevent airway
collapse in COPD. Oxygen should be titrated cautiously, and bronchodilators are
appropriate, but first, the nurse should use noninvasive interventions to improve
gas exchange.
2. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for a severe infection. The nurse notes
redness and flushing of the face and upper body during infusion. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately.
B. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
C. Administer diphenhydramine and continue at the same rate.
D. Document the reaction and continue the infusion.
Answer: B. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
,Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to vancomycin.
Slowing the infusion and monitoring the client reduces the risk while allowing
treatment to continue. Stopping may be necessary if symptoms worsen.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed chest tube following a
pneumothorax. The drainage system shows continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber. What does this indicate?
A. Normal function of the chest tube
B. Air leak in the system
C. Suction is too high
D. The lung has re-expanded
Answer: B. Air leak in the system
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
Intermittent bubbling is expected with inspiration. The nurse should check
connections and notify the provider if persistent.
4. A postpartum client reports bright red vaginal bleeding, a heart rate of 110 bpm,
and BP of 86/52 mmHg. What should the nurse do first?
A. Start IV fluids and monitor vital signs.
B. Massage the fundus.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Obtain a complete blood count.
Answer: B. Massage the fundus.
Rationale: Fundal massage is the first-line intervention for postpartum
hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Immediate action is required to control bleeding
before further interventions.
,5. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with fruity-smelling breath, nausea, and
confusion. Blood glucose is 450 mg/dL. Which laboratory value should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Serum bicarbonate 18 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Arterial pH 7.2
D. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
Answer: C. Arterial pH 7.2
Rationale: The client is showing signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Metabolic
acidosis (pH <7.35) is expected due to ketone accumulation.
6. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which laboratory
value is most important to review before administering the medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Creatinine
Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of cardiac
arrhythmias. Potassium levels should be assessed before administration.
7. A client is admitted with a possible stroke. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Slurred speech
B. Facial droop
C. Blood pressure 180/100 mmHg
D. Sudden inability to move one side of the body
Answer: D. Sudden inability to move one side of the body
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness indicates an acute neurological deficit and
requires immediate intervention to preserve brain tissue.
, 8. A client is taking warfarin and presents with bruising and dark tarry stools.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Assess INR.
D. Prepare vitamin K for administration.
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale: Bruising and melena indicate potential bleeding complications. The
provider should be notified immediately for further orders, including possible
vitamin K administration.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking it.
C. Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
D. Take at bedtime.
Answer: C. Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
Rationale: Alendronate can cause esophagitis; remaining upright ensures proper
esophageal passage and reduces risk of irritation.
10. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
B. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
C. Restrict dietary potassium.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is dangerous in CKD. Calcium stabilizes the cardiac
membrane, sodium polystyrene sulfonate reduces potassium levels, and dietary
restriction prevents further elevation.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
increasing dyspnea and has a SpO₂ of 88% on room air. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
B. Increase the oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula.
C. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Answer: C. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing.
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation and prevent airway
collapse in COPD. Oxygen should be titrated cautiously, and bronchodilators are
appropriate, but first, the nurse should use noninvasive interventions to improve
gas exchange.
2. A client is receiving IV vancomycin for a severe infection. The nurse notes
redness and flushing of the face and upper body during infusion. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately.
B. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
C. Administer diphenhydramine and continue at the same rate.
D. Document the reaction and continue the infusion.
Answer: B. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
,Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to vancomycin.
Slowing the infusion and monitoring the client reduces the risk while allowing
treatment to continue. Stopping may be necessary if symptoms worsen.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly placed chest tube following a
pneumothorax. The drainage system shows continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber. What does this indicate?
A. Normal function of the chest tube
B. Air leak in the system
C. Suction is too high
D. The lung has re-expanded
Answer: B. Air leak in the system
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak.
Intermittent bubbling is expected with inspiration. The nurse should check
connections and notify the provider if persistent.
4. A postpartum client reports bright red vaginal bleeding, a heart rate of 110 bpm,
and BP of 86/52 mmHg. What should the nurse do first?
A. Start IV fluids and monitor vital signs.
B. Massage the fundus.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Obtain a complete blood count.
Answer: B. Massage the fundus.
Rationale: Fundal massage is the first-line intervention for postpartum
hemorrhage due to uterine atony. Immediate action is required to control bleeding
before further interventions.
,5. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with fruity-smelling breath, nausea, and
confusion. Blood glucose is 450 mg/dL. Which laboratory value should the nurse
anticipate?
A. Serum bicarbonate 18 mEq/L
B. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
C. Arterial pH 7.2
D. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
Answer: C. Arterial pH 7.2
Rationale: The client is showing signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Metabolic
acidosis (pH <7.35) is expected due to ketone accumulation.
6. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which laboratory
value is most important to review before administering the medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D. Creatinine
Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of cardiac
arrhythmias. Potassium levels should be assessed before administration.
7. A client is admitted with a possible stroke. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Slurred speech
B. Facial droop
C. Blood pressure 180/100 mmHg
D. Sudden inability to move one side of the body
Answer: D. Sudden inability to move one side of the body
Rationale: Sudden unilateral weakness indicates an acute neurological deficit and
requires immediate intervention to preserve brain tissue.
, 8. A client is taking warfarin and presents with bruising and dark tarry stools.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
B. Notify the healthcare provider.
C. Assess INR.
D. Prepare vitamin K for administration.
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider.
Rationale: Bruising and melena indicate potential bleeding complications. The
provider should be notified immediately for further orders, including possible
vitamin K administration.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for alendronate. Which
instruction is most important?
A. Take the medication with meals.
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking it.
C. Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
D. Take at bedtime.
Answer: C. Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutes.
Rationale: Alendronate can cause esophagitis; remaining upright ensures proper
esophageal passage and reduces risk of irritation.
10. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate.
B. Administer IV calcium gluconate.
C. Restrict dietary potassium.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D. All of the above.
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is dangerous in CKD. Calcium stabilizes the cardiac
membrane, sodium polystyrene sulfonate reduces potassium levels, and dietary
restriction prevents further elevation.
