NSG 4100 Adult Health III
Exam 2 Practice Exam | Latest
2025/2026
Topics: HIV/AIDS & Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes, Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary)
1. A patient who has vague symptoms of fatigue, headaches, and a positive test for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies using an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. What instructions
should the nurse give to this patient?
a) "The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results."
b) "A viral culture will be done to determine the progression of the disease."
c) "It will probably be 10 or more years before you develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS)."
d) "The Western blot test will be done to count your CD4+ T-cells."
Answer: a) The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results. (After an initial positive EIA, it is
repeated before more specific testing like the Western blot is done.)
2. A patient who has a positive test for HIV antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis
jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/µL. Based on diagnostic criteria
established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is
correct?
a) "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of an acute HIV infection."
b) "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection."
c) "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."
d) "The patient's status is best described as seroconversion."
Answer: c) The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). (Development of an
opportunistic infection like PCP or a CD4+ count <200 cells/µL meets the diagnostic criterion for AIDS.)
3. A patient with a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most
important at this time?
a) Teach the patient about the medications available for treatment.
,b) Inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners.
c) Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results.
d) Ask the patient to notify individuals who have had risky contact.
Answer: c) Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. (After an
initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm. An anxious patient is not likely to be
able to take in new information.)
4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel
obsessed with thoughts about dying. Do you think I am just being morbid?" Which response by the
nurse is best?
a) "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS."
b) "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now."
c) "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful to you?"
d) "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?"
Answer: d) "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?" (More assessment
of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. This open-ended question
encourages communication.)
5. A pregnant woman with a history of asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick."
Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient?
a) "The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic."
b) "Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus."
c) "Because you are at an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV."
d) "You will need to have a Cesarean section to prevent mother-to-child transmission."
Answer: b) "Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus." (With
appropriate antiretroviral therapy (ART), the rate of transmission is less than 2%. Even without
treatment, only about 25% of infants develop HIV.)
6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) when
the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown?
a) Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood from a vein.
b) Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool.
c) Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions.
d) Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgical procedure.
Answer: a) Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood from a vein. (PEP is
recommended for exposures that pose a risk of HIV transmission, such as a percutaneous injury (needle
stick) with a device contaminated with blood.)
7. The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with HIV. The patient asks, "What determines
how quickly my disease will progress?" What is the nurse's best response?
a) "The most important factor is your adherence to antiretroviral therapy."
b) "It is primarily determined by your genetic makeup and race."
, c) "The viral load is the only predictor of how fast the disease will progress."
d) "If you remain asymptomatic for the first year, you will likely never develop AIDS."
Answer: a) "The most important factor is your adherence to antiretroviral therapy." (Consistent
adherence to ART suppresses viral replication, preserves the immune system, and dramatically slows
disease progression.)
8. A patient with HIV has a CD4+ count of 180 cells/µL. The nurse knows this places the patient at high
risk for which opportunistic infection?
a) Candidiasis (thrush)
b) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
c) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
d) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) ulcers
Answer: c) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP). (PCP prophylaxis is typically initiated when the CD4+
count drops below 200 cells/µL, indicating severe immunosuppression.)
9. A patient on antiretroviral therapy (ART) has a CD4+ count of 600 cells/µL and an undetectable viral
load. Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of their status?
a) "I can stop taking my medications since my viral load is undetectable."
b) "I am still able to transmit the virus to others, so I must practice safe sex."
c) "My risk of opportunistic infections is gone now that my counts are up."
d) "Undetectable means the virus is cured and eliminated from my body."
Answer: b) "I am still able to transmit the virus to others, so I must practice safe sex." (While an
undetectable viral load means U=U (Undetectable = Untransmittable) for sexual transmission, it's crucial
that the patient understands the importance of adherence to maintain this status and prevent
transmission through other means like shared needles.)
10. A nurse is providing education to a patient starting combination antiretroviral therapy (cART).
What is the most important point to emphasize?
a) The medications are most effective if taken with high-fat meals.
b) The best time of day to take the medications is in the morning.
c) Strict adherence to the medication schedule is essential to prevent drug resistance.
d) Side effects are rare, so the patient should not worry about them.
Answer: c) Strict adherence to the medication schedule is essential to prevent drug resistance. (Non-
adherence is the primary cause of treatment failure and the development of resistant viral strains.)
11. A patient is admitted to the ICU diagnosed with severe Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS).
Which collaborative intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a) Infuse 0.9% normal saline intravenously.
b) Administer intermediate-acting insulin (NPH).
c) Perform blood glucose checks daily.
d) Monitor the patient's serum potassium level closely.
Answer: a) Infuse 0.9% normal saline intravenously. (The priority intervention for HHS is aggressive fluid
resuscitation to correct the profound dehydration.)
Exam 2 Practice Exam | Latest
2025/2026
Topics: HIV/AIDS & Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes, Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary)
1. A patient who has vague symptoms of fatigue, headaches, and a positive test for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies using an enzyme immunoassay (EIA) test. What instructions
should the nurse give to this patient?
a) "The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results."
b) "A viral culture will be done to determine the progression of the disease."
c) "It will probably be 10 or more years before you develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS)."
d) "The Western blot test will be done to count your CD4+ T-cells."
Answer: a) The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results. (After an initial positive EIA, it is
repeated before more specific testing like the Western blot is done.)
2. A patient who has a positive test for HIV antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis
jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/µL. Based on diagnostic criteria
established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is
correct?
a) "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of an acute HIV infection."
b) "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection."
c) "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."
d) "The patient's status is best described as seroconversion."
Answer: c) The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). (Development of an
opportunistic infection like PCP or a CD4+ count <200 cells/µL meets the diagnostic criterion for AIDS.)
3. A patient with a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most
important at this time?
a) Teach the patient about the medications available for treatment.
,b) Inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners.
c) Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results.
d) Ask the patient to notify individuals who have had risky contact.
Answer: c) Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. (After an
initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm. An anxious patient is not likely to be
able to take in new information.)
4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel
obsessed with thoughts about dying. Do you think I am just being morbid?" Which response by the
nurse is best?
a) "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS."
b) "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now."
c) "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful to you?"
d) "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?"
Answer: d) "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?" (More assessment
of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. This open-ended question
encourages communication.)
5. A pregnant woman with a history of asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick."
Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient?
a) "The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic."
b) "Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus."
c) "Because you are at an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV."
d) "You will need to have a Cesarean section to prevent mother-to-child transmission."
Answer: b) "Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus." (With
appropriate antiretroviral therapy (ART), the rate of transmission is less than 2%. Even without
treatment, only about 25% of infants develop HIV.)
6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) when
the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown?
a) Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood from a vein.
b) Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool.
c) Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions.
d) Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgical procedure.
Answer: a) Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood from a vein. (PEP is
recommended for exposures that pose a risk of HIV transmission, such as a percutaneous injury (needle
stick) with a device contaminated with blood.)
7. The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with HIV. The patient asks, "What determines
how quickly my disease will progress?" What is the nurse's best response?
a) "The most important factor is your adherence to antiretroviral therapy."
b) "It is primarily determined by your genetic makeup and race."
, c) "The viral load is the only predictor of how fast the disease will progress."
d) "If you remain asymptomatic for the first year, you will likely never develop AIDS."
Answer: a) "The most important factor is your adherence to antiretroviral therapy." (Consistent
adherence to ART suppresses viral replication, preserves the immune system, and dramatically slows
disease progression.)
8. A patient with HIV has a CD4+ count of 180 cells/µL. The nurse knows this places the patient at high
risk for which opportunistic infection?
a) Candidiasis (thrush)
b) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
c) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
d) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) ulcers
Answer: c) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP). (PCP prophylaxis is typically initiated when the CD4+
count drops below 200 cells/µL, indicating severe immunosuppression.)
9. A patient on antiretroviral therapy (ART) has a CD4+ count of 600 cells/µL and an undetectable viral
load. Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of their status?
a) "I can stop taking my medications since my viral load is undetectable."
b) "I am still able to transmit the virus to others, so I must practice safe sex."
c) "My risk of opportunistic infections is gone now that my counts are up."
d) "Undetectable means the virus is cured and eliminated from my body."
Answer: b) "I am still able to transmit the virus to others, so I must practice safe sex." (While an
undetectable viral load means U=U (Undetectable = Untransmittable) for sexual transmission, it's crucial
that the patient understands the importance of adherence to maintain this status and prevent
transmission through other means like shared needles.)
10. A nurse is providing education to a patient starting combination antiretroviral therapy (cART).
What is the most important point to emphasize?
a) The medications are most effective if taken with high-fat meals.
b) The best time of day to take the medications is in the morning.
c) Strict adherence to the medication schedule is essential to prevent drug resistance.
d) Side effects are rare, so the patient should not worry about them.
Answer: c) Strict adherence to the medication schedule is essential to prevent drug resistance. (Non-
adherence is the primary cause of treatment failure and the development of resistant viral strains.)
11. A patient is admitted to the ICU diagnosed with severe Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS).
Which collaborative intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a) Infuse 0.9% normal saline intravenously.
b) Administer intermediate-acting insulin (NPH).
c) Perform blood glucose checks daily.
d) Monitor the patient's serum potassium level closely.
Answer: a) Infuse 0.9% normal saline intravenously. (The priority intervention for HHS is aggressive fluid
resuscitation to correct the profound dehydration.)
