NGN HESI RN PHARMACOLOGY EXAM /
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
1. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which finding would
indicate a potentially serious adverse effect that requires immediate attention?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness when standing
C. Facial swelling and difficulty breathing
D. Mild fatigue
Answer: C. Facial swelling and difficulty breathing
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. Angioedema is a rare but life-
threatening adverse effect that can affect the airway, requiring immediate medical
intervention.
2. A nurse is administering morphine to a postoperative patient. Which assessment
finding would indicate that the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of the
medication?
A. Pain score decreased from 8 to 3
B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
C. Blood pressure within normal limits
D. Patient reports feeling relaxed
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate below 10
breaths per minute is dangerous and requires immediate intervention.
,3. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which lab value should the
nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum glucose
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum calcium
Answer: A. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Monitoring
potassium levels is essential to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which instruction is most
important to include in the patient teaching?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
B. Monitor for symptoms of lactic acidosis such as muscle pain or fatigue.
C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
D. Take an additional dose if a meal is skipped.
Answer: B. Monitor for symptoms of lactic acidosis such as muscle pain or
fatigue.
Rationale: Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, which is serious. Patients
must be aware of the signs and seek immediate medical attention if they occur.
5. A patient is receiving digoxin. Which sign indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia and nausea
B. Tachycardia and increased appetite
C. Diarrhea and hypotension
D. Flushed skin and fever
Answer: A. Bradycardia and nausea
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity often presents with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea,
vomiting) and cardiac effects such as bradycardia or arrhythmias.
,6. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the patient indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
B. “I can take aspirin for headaches without concern.”
C. “I need to watch for unusual bleeding or bruising.”
D. “I will maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K in my diet.”
Answer: B. “I can take aspirin for headaches without concern.”
Rationale: Aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Patients should consult their provider before taking any NSAIDs.
7. A patient receiving albuterol for asthma reports tremors and palpitations. What
is the nurse’s best action?
A. Document the findings as expected side effects.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths.
D. Administer an additional dose to relieve symptoms.
Answer: A. Document the findings as expected side effects.
Rationale: Tremors and palpitations are common, non-life-threatening side effects
of beta-2 agonists like albuterol. Monitoring and documentation are appropriate.
8. A patient is prescribed amoxicillin for a bacterial infection. The patient reports a
history of penicillin allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Administer the medication and observe for reaction.
B. Consult the provider before giving the medication.
C. Give a test dose to confirm allergy.
D. Administer an antihistamine before giving the antibiotic.
Answer: B. Consult the provider before giving the medication.
Rationale: A history of penicillin allergy can result in severe reactions. The
provider should evaluate alternatives or perform allergy testing.
, 9. A nurse is teaching a patient about prednisone. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. “I can stop taking it once I feel better.”
B. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
C. “I should avoid all vaccinations while on this medication.”
D. “I do not need to worry about infections while taking this.”
Answer: B. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
Rationale: Prednisone can cause gastrointestinal irritation; taking it with food
reduces this risk. Abrupt discontinuation can cause adrenal insufficiency.
10. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. Which teaching
point is most important?
A. Apply the patch to a hairy area for better absorption.
B. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources.
C. Cut the patch to adjust the dose.
D. Apply a new patch every 24 hours.
Answer: B. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources.
Rationale: Heat can increase absorption of fentanyl, leading to overdose. Patches
should be applied to non-hairy, intact skin and replaced as per instructions
(typically every 72 hours).
11. A patient receiving heparin develops a platelet count of 80,000/mm³. What is
the priority nursing action?
A. Continue therapy and monitor platelet count.
B. Stop heparin and notify the provider.
C. Administer vitamin K.
D. Increase the heparin dose.
Answer: B. Stop heparin and notify the provider.
Rationale: A drop in platelet count indicates possible heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT), which can be life-threatening. Heparin should be stopped
immediately.
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
1. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which finding would
indicate a potentially serious adverse effect that requires immediate attention?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness when standing
C. Facial swelling and difficulty breathing
D. Mild fatigue
Answer: C. Facial swelling and difficulty breathing
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. Angioedema is a rare but life-
threatening adverse effect that can affect the airway, requiring immediate medical
intervention.
2. A nurse is administering morphine to a postoperative patient. Which assessment
finding would indicate that the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of the
medication?
A. Pain score decreased from 8 to 3
B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
C. Blood pressure within normal limits
D. Patient reports feeling relaxed
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A respiratory rate below 10
breaths per minute is dangerous and requires immediate intervention.
,3. A patient is prescribed furosemide for heart failure. Which lab value should the
nurse monitor closely?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum glucose
C. Serum sodium
D. Serum calcium
Answer: A. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia. Monitoring
potassium levels is essential to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on metformin. Which instruction is most
important to include in the patient teaching?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
B. Monitor for symptoms of lactic acidosis such as muscle pain or fatigue.
C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
D. Take an additional dose if a meal is skipped.
Answer: B. Monitor for symptoms of lactic acidosis such as muscle pain or
fatigue.
Rationale: Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, which is serious. Patients
must be aware of the signs and seek immediate medical attention if they occur.
5. A patient is receiving digoxin. Which sign indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia and nausea
B. Tachycardia and increased appetite
C. Diarrhea and hypotension
D. Flushed skin and fever
Answer: A. Bradycardia and nausea
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity often presents with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea,
vomiting) and cardiac effects such as bradycardia or arrhythmias.
,6. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which statement by the patient indicates a need
for further teaching?
A. “I will have my INR checked regularly.”
B. “I can take aspirin for headaches without concern.”
C. “I need to watch for unusual bleeding or bruising.”
D. “I will maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K in my diet.”
Answer: B. “I can take aspirin for headaches without concern.”
Rationale: Aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin.
Patients should consult their provider before taking any NSAIDs.
7. A patient receiving albuterol for asthma reports tremors and palpitations. What
is the nurse’s best action?
A. Document the findings as expected side effects.
B. Withhold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Encourage the patient to take deep breaths.
D. Administer an additional dose to relieve symptoms.
Answer: A. Document the findings as expected side effects.
Rationale: Tremors and palpitations are common, non-life-threatening side effects
of beta-2 agonists like albuterol. Monitoring and documentation are appropriate.
8. A patient is prescribed amoxicillin for a bacterial infection. The patient reports a
history of penicillin allergy. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Administer the medication and observe for reaction.
B. Consult the provider before giving the medication.
C. Give a test dose to confirm allergy.
D. Administer an antihistamine before giving the antibiotic.
Answer: B. Consult the provider before giving the medication.
Rationale: A history of penicillin allergy can result in severe reactions. The
provider should evaluate alternatives or perform allergy testing.
, 9. A nurse is teaching a patient about prednisone. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. “I can stop taking it once I feel better.”
B. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
C. “I should avoid all vaccinations while on this medication.”
D. “I do not need to worry about infections while taking this.”
Answer: B. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
Rationale: Prednisone can cause gastrointestinal irritation; taking it with food
reduces this risk. Abrupt discontinuation can cause adrenal insufficiency.
10. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. Which teaching
point is most important?
A. Apply the patch to a hairy area for better absorption.
B. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources.
C. Cut the patch to adjust the dose.
D. Apply a new patch every 24 hours.
Answer: B. Avoid exposing the patch to heat sources.
Rationale: Heat can increase absorption of fentanyl, leading to overdose. Patches
should be applied to non-hairy, intact skin and replaced as per instructions
(typically every 72 hours).
11. A patient receiving heparin develops a platelet count of 80,000/mm³. What is
the priority nursing action?
A. Continue therapy and monitor platelet count.
B. Stop heparin and notify the provider.
C. Administer vitamin K.
D. Increase the heparin dose.
Answer: B. Stop heparin and notify the provider.
Rationale: A drop in platelet count indicates possible heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT), which can be life-threatening. Heparin should be stopped
immediately.
