Paramedic CCT Exam with all Correct & 100% Verified
Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+
1) Per Medicare, which of the following qualifies as call for reimbursement as a critical care transport
(Select all that apply)
A) Patient is on Dobutamine drip
B) Patient is incubated and sedated
C) Patient is on a mechanical ventilator
D) Patient is on an IV pump ✔Correct Answer-A) Patient is on Dobutamine drip
B) Patient is incubated and sedated
C) Patient is on a mechanical ventilator
D) Patient is on an IV pump
2) Which of the following is a good practice when moving a CCT patient from hospital bed to the
stretcher (and vice versa)?
A) Increasing sedation
B) Labeling multiple IV lines
C) Clamping chest tubes
D) Flushing Foley catheters ✔Correct Answer-B) Labeling multiple IV lines
3) You are picking up an incubated patient at a rural hospital in preparation for transport to an urban
medical center. What is the gold standard for hospital verification of tube placement that you should
check prior to moving the patient?
A) Chest radiograph
B) Colormetric capnography
C) Auscultation of breath sounds
D) ABGs ✔Correct Answer-A) Chest radiograph
4) For inter facility transfers, your normal (first line) medical control is:
A) Physician at the sending facility
B) Physician at the receiving facility
C) CCT medical director
D) Physician at the closest facility ✔Correct Answer-A) Physician at the sending facility
5) EMTALA requires a hospital to provide a screening examination and appropriate life-sustaining
emergency care:
A) to any person experiencing a medical emergency on its campus
B) even if there is no emergency at the facility
C) in accordance with the patient's ability to pay
D) to ambulance / helicopter teams utilizing the helipad to a transfer ✔Correct Answer-A) to any
person experiencing a medical emergency on its campus
6) A patient at an outlying facility has been diagnosed with a stroke. As you approach the patient, she
informs you she does not want to go to the second facility (a stroke center) because she is "more
,comfortable" at her current facility. She appears alert and oriented, although her speech is slurred.
You should next:
A) Obtain a complete witnessed refusal
B) Explain the capabilities of the second facility and the risks of remaining at the first facility
C) Check with the sending facility to see if they have obtained a con sent to transfer form
D) Appeal to the patient's family to convince her to go ✔Correct Answer-B) Explain the capabilities
of the second facility and the risks of remaining at the first facility
7) You are transporting a critical patient. You are en route to meet a medical helicopter at a hospital
landing pad. Which of the following is most correct?
A) The hospital has no obligation to provide a screening examination for the patient if the only
reason the patient is coming to the facility is to utilize the helipad for transfer.
B) The hospital has an obligation to provide a screening examination regardless of whether the
agencies involved in the transfer request a screening.
C) The hospital must provide security for the helipad before, during, and following the transfer of the
patient.
D) The hospital has no obligation to see the patient, but may bill the agencies that utilize the helipad.
✔Correct Answer-A) The hospital has no obligation to provide a screening examination for the
patient if the only reason the patient is coming to the facility is to utilize the helipad for transfer.
8) You are picking up a patient at an outlying facility. The facility hands you all the patient care
information and demographics in a sealed envelope, directing you not to open because they are
concerned about a HIPAA violation. You should:
A) Ask the attending physician if her or she could provide you the patient information you need.
B) Explain to the facility that the transfer of information is exempted under the "health care
operations" section of HIPAA.
C) Wait until arrival at the receiving facility to obtain patient information
D) Wait until you are in the truck and off the property, then open the envelope and obtain what you
need to treat the patient properly. ✔Correct Answer-B) Explain to the facility that the transfer of
information is exempted under the "health care operations" section of HIPAA.
9) You are transferring a patient to a higher level of care. The patient has a written order on the
transfer sheet: "No CPR." En route you note the patient has stopped breathing, but still has a pulse
and EKG rhythm. You should:
A) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the receiving facility for guidance
B) Note the time, the patient is a DNR
C) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the sending facility for guidance
D) Intubation immediately and place the patient on your ventilator according to your protocol
✔Correct Answer-C) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the sending facility for guidance
10) The person responsible for all clinical aspects of a CCT program is:
A) The critical care paramedic on a particular call
B) The physician who orders the transport
C) The chief executive officer of the company that owns the CCT service
D) The designated medical director for the CCT program ✔Correct Answer-D) The designated
medical director for the CCT program
,1) When was the movement of injured patients first recorded?
A) 1945, during World War II in Burma
B) The 11th century, during the Crusades Ans: D
C) 1812 in New York City
D) 1872, during the French Revolution ✔Correct Answer-B) The 11th century, during the Crusades
Ans: D
2) Who initiated the first ambulance service in a US major metropolitan area?
A) Freedom House Ambulance
B) Bellevue Hospital
C) The Revolutionary Army
D) The Army of the Potomac ✔Correct Answer-B) Bellevue Hospital
3) In 1969, Dr. Eugene Nagel developed the first _______ program in the United States with the
Miami Fire Department.
A) coronary care
B) community CPR
C) fire-based EMS
D) paramedic ✔Correct Answer-D) paramedic
4) What additional healthcare provider may become part of the transport team during the transport
of a patient receiving extracorporeal membrane oxygenation?
A) Pulmonary technician
B) Respiratory therapist
C) Anesthesiologist
D) Perfusionist ✔Correct Answer-D) Perfusionist
5) A person's ability to withstand negative pressure or "bounce back" from difficulties is known as:
A) stress management
B) emotional well-being
C) EAP
D) resilience ✔Correct Answer-D) resilience
6) A STEMI patient with three vasoactive medications infusing in a community hospital that is 10
miles away, 45 minutes with current traffic, would be a candidate for which mode of transportation?
A) Rotor-wing transport
B) IFT-capable ALS unit
C) Fixed-wing transport
D) Mobile intensive care unit ✔Correct Answer-A) Rotor-wing transport
7) A 19-year-old female patient with a traumatic brain injury was involved in a car accident 15
minutes ago. She's becoming hypothermic because she was being extricated in a snowstorm. She
was brought to a critical access hospital, and they're arranging for immediate transport to a
, university hospital with neurosurgery that's 12 miles away. Assuming weather is not a factor, what's
the best mode of transportation for this patient?
A) Rotor-wing transport
B) Mobile intensive care unit
C) Fixed-wing transport
D) IFT-capable advanced life support ✔Correct Answer-A) Rotor-wing transport
8) Which of the following will indicate to dispatch that the interfacility transport requires critical care
transport?
A) Intra-aortic balloon pump
B) Infusion pump with electrolytes
C) Wound vacuum
D) Continuous telemetry ✔Correct Answer-A) Intra-aortic balloon pump
9) Who is responsible for the initial triage process of calls involving critical care transport patients?
A) Clinical crew
B) Dispatch center
C) Initial responders
D) It varies by system ✔Correct Answer-B) Dispatch center
10) A patient who experiences an actual or potential life-threatening illness or injury that requires
continual monitoring and care should be transported by a service that:
A) employs clinicians with advanced certifications.
B) is CAMTS accredited at the SCT level.
C) is affiliated with an academic medical center.
D) utiizes the minimum credential required by the state. ✔Correct Answer-A) employs clinicians
with advanced certifications.
11) What are the potential consequences of a facility physically locking the hospital doors in order to
refuse accepting patients being brought in by EMS?
A) A fine of between $25,000 and $50,000
B) CMS reimbursement disruption
C) The loss of the hospital's license
D) Suspension of JCAHO accreditation ✔Correct Answer-A) A fine of between $25,000 and $50,000
12) What must a transferring facility do in order to stabilize a patient prior to transport, according to
EMTALA?
A) Acquire all available radiologic and laboratory studies.
B) Improve the vital signs to the lower ranges of normal values.
C) Perform a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition
D) Complete utilization of the facility's available resources. ✔Correct Answer-D) Complete
utilization of the facility's available resources.
13) Court action resulting from an EMTALA violation _______ a malpractice lawsuit.
Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+
1) Per Medicare, which of the following qualifies as call for reimbursement as a critical care transport
(Select all that apply)
A) Patient is on Dobutamine drip
B) Patient is incubated and sedated
C) Patient is on a mechanical ventilator
D) Patient is on an IV pump ✔Correct Answer-A) Patient is on Dobutamine drip
B) Patient is incubated and sedated
C) Patient is on a mechanical ventilator
D) Patient is on an IV pump
2) Which of the following is a good practice when moving a CCT patient from hospital bed to the
stretcher (and vice versa)?
A) Increasing sedation
B) Labeling multiple IV lines
C) Clamping chest tubes
D) Flushing Foley catheters ✔Correct Answer-B) Labeling multiple IV lines
3) You are picking up an incubated patient at a rural hospital in preparation for transport to an urban
medical center. What is the gold standard for hospital verification of tube placement that you should
check prior to moving the patient?
A) Chest radiograph
B) Colormetric capnography
C) Auscultation of breath sounds
D) ABGs ✔Correct Answer-A) Chest radiograph
4) For inter facility transfers, your normal (first line) medical control is:
A) Physician at the sending facility
B) Physician at the receiving facility
C) CCT medical director
D) Physician at the closest facility ✔Correct Answer-A) Physician at the sending facility
5) EMTALA requires a hospital to provide a screening examination and appropriate life-sustaining
emergency care:
A) to any person experiencing a medical emergency on its campus
B) even if there is no emergency at the facility
C) in accordance with the patient's ability to pay
D) to ambulance / helicopter teams utilizing the helipad to a transfer ✔Correct Answer-A) to any
person experiencing a medical emergency on its campus
6) A patient at an outlying facility has been diagnosed with a stroke. As you approach the patient, she
informs you she does not want to go to the second facility (a stroke center) because she is "more
,comfortable" at her current facility. She appears alert and oriented, although her speech is slurred.
You should next:
A) Obtain a complete witnessed refusal
B) Explain the capabilities of the second facility and the risks of remaining at the first facility
C) Check with the sending facility to see if they have obtained a con sent to transfer form
D) Appeal to the patient's family to convince her to go ✔Correct Answer-B) Explain the capabilities
of the second facility and the risks of remaining at the first facility
7) You are transporting a critical patient. You are en route to meet a medical helicopter at a hospital
landing pad. Which of the following is most correct?
A) The hospital has no obligation to provide a screening examination for the patient if the only
reason the patient is coming to the facility is to utilize the helipad for transfer.
B) The hospital has an obligation to provide a screening examination regardless of whether the
agencies involved in the transfer request a screening.
C) The hospital must provide security for the helipad before, during, and following the transfer of the
patient.
D) The hospital has no obligation to see the patient, but may bill the agencies that utilize the helipad.
✔Correct Answer-A) The hospital has no obligation to provide a screening examination for the
patient if the only reason the patient is coming to the facility is to utilize the helipad for transfer.
8) You are picking up a patient at an outlying facility. The facility hands you all the patient care
information and demographics in a sealed envelope, directing you not to open because they are
concerned about a HIPAA violation. You should:
A) Ask the attending physician if her or she could provide you the patient information you need.
B) Explain to the facility that the transfer of information is exempted under the "health care
operations" section of HIPAA.
C) Wait until arrival at the receiving facility to obtain patient information
D) Wait until you are in the truck and off the property, then open the envelope and obtain what you
need to treat the patient properly. ✔Correct Answer-B) Explain to the facility that the transfer of
information is exempted under the "health care operations" section of HIPAA.
9) You are transferring a patient to a higher level of care. The patient has a written order on the
transfer sheet: "No CPR." En route you note the patient has stopped breathing, but still has a pulse
and EKG rhythm. You should:
A) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the receiving facility for guidance
B) Note the time, the patient is a DNR
C) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the sending facility for guidance
D) Intubation immediately and place the patient on your ventilator according to your protocol
✔Correct Answer-C) Provide noninvasive ventilation and contact the sending facility for guidance
10) The person responsible for all clinical aspects of a CCT program is:
A) The critical care paramedic on a particular call
B) The physician who orders the transport
C) The chief executive officer of the company that owns the CCT service
D) The designated medical director for the CCT program ✔Correct Answer-D) The designated
medical director for the CCT program
,1) When was the movement of injured patients first recorded?
A) 1945, during World War II in Burma
B) The 11th century, during the Crusades Ans: D
C) 1812 in New York City
D) 1872, during the French Revolution ✔Correct Answer-B) The 11th century, during the Crusades
Ans: D
2) Who initiated the first ambulance service in a US major metropolitan area?
A) Freedom House Ambulance
B) Bellevue Hospital
C) The Revolutionary Army
D) The Army of the Potomac ✔Correct Answer-B) Bellevue Hospital
3) In 1969, Dr. Eugene Nagel developed the first _______ program in the United States with the
Miami Fire Department.
A) coronary care
B) community CPR
C) fire-based EMS
D) paramedic ✔Correct Answer-D) paramedic
4) What additional healthcare provider may become part of the transport team during the transport
of a patient receiving extracorporeal membrane oxygenation?
A) Pulmonary technician
B) Respiratory therapist
C) Anesthesiologist
D) Perfusionist ✔Correct Answer-D) Perfusionist
5) A person's ability to withstand negative pressure or "bounce back" from difficulties is known as:
A) stress management
B) emotional well-being
C) EAP
D) resilience ✔Correct Answer-D) resilience
6) A STEMI patient with three vasoactive medications infusing in a community hospital that is 10
miles away, 45 minutes with current traffic, would be a candidate for which mode of transportation?
A) Rotor-wing transport
B) IFT-capable ALS unit
C) Fixed-wing transport
D) Mobile intensive care unit ✔Correct Answer-A) Rotor-wing transport
7) A 19-year-old female patient with a traumatic brain injury was involved in a car accident 15
minutes ago. She's becoming hypothermic because she was being extricated in a snowstorm. She
was brought to a critical access hospital, and they're arranging for immediate transport to a
, university hospital with neurosurgery that's 12 miles away. Assuming weather is not a factor, what's
the best mode of transportation for this patient?
A) Rotor-wing transport
B) Mobile intensive care unit
C) Fixed-wing transport
D) IFT-capable advanced life support ✔Correct Answer-A) Rotor-wing transport
8) Which of the following will indicate to dispatch that the interfacility transport requires critical care
transport?
A) Intra-aortic balloon pump
B) Infusion pump with electrolytes
C) Wound vacuum
D) Continuous telemetry ✔Correct Answer-A) Intra-aortic balloon pump
9) Who is responsible for the initial triage process of calls involving critical care transport patients?
A) Clinical crew
B) Dispatch center
C) Initial responders
D) It varies by system ✔Correct Answer-B) Dispatch center
10) A patient who experiences an actual or potential life-threatening illness or injury that requires
continual monitoring and care should be transported by a service that:
A) employs clinicians with advanced certifications.
B) is CAMTS accredited at the SCT level.
C) is affiliated with an academic medical center.
D) utiizes the minimum credential required by the state. ✔Correct Answer-A) employs clinicians
with advanced certifications.
11) What are the potential consequences of a facility physically locking the hospital doors in order to
refuse accepting patients being brought in by EMS?
A) A fine of between $25,000 and $50,000
B) CMS reimbursement disruption
C) The loss of the hospital's license
D) Suspension of JCAHO accreditation ✔Correct Answer-A) A fine of between $25,000 and $50,000
12) What must a transferring facility do in order to stabilize a patient prior to transport, according to
EMTALA?
A) Acquire all available radiologic and laboratory studies.
B) Improve the vital signs to the lower ranges of normal values.
C) Perform a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition
D) Complete utilization of the facility's available resources. ✔Correct Answer-D) Complete
utilization of the facility's available resources.
13) Court action resulting from an EMTALA violation _______ a malpractice lawsuit.
