SWT301-PART8 EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS
701: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any
event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report - Correct Answers -C
702: A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process.
During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to
classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a
week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to
each known product risk and to unknown risks.
What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing. - Correct Answers -A
703: Which tools help to support static testing?
A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools. - Correct
Answers -D
704: Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring. - Correct Answers -C
705: What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
,A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives
for testing.
B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests. -
Correct Answers -B
Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
A. I, II,III, IV and V.
B. IV, I, V, III and II.
C. IV, I, V, II and III.
D. I, IV, V, III and II. - Correct Answers -B
722: Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan.
Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
B. Find as many defects as possible.
C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
D. Prevent defects through early involvement. - Correct Answers -A
723: Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
A. Test management and control
B. Test specification and design
C. Test execution and logging
D. Performance and monitoring - Correct Answers -B
706: What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution
tool has been purchased.
C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time. - Correct Answers
-A
707: Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
,A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven - Correct Answers -A
708: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an
organization?
A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool. -
Correct Answers -B
709: Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool
evaluation?
A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and
the test assets - Correct Answers -D
710: What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be
solved by the software or its components.
C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the
system or components. - Correct Answers -B
711: An exhaustive test suite would include:
A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions. - Correct Answers -A
712: Which statement about testing is true?
A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
, B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to
work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team. - Correct Answers -A
713: For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database,
which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all
of the steps?
1. Open database and confirm existing customer
2. Change customer's marital status from single to married
3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6. Close the customer record and close the database
A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5 - Correct Answers -D
714: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks. -
Correct Answers -C
715: Consider the following statements about regression tests:
I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in
the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and II
B. I and III
AND ANSWERS
701: According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any
event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report - Correct Answers -C
702: A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process.
During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to
classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a
week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to
each known product risk and to unknown risks.
What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing. - Correct Answers -A
703: Which tools help to support static testing?
A. Static analysis tools and test execution tools.
B. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.
C. Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.
D. Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools. - Correct
Answers -D
704: Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specification and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring. - Correct Answers -C
705: What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?
,A. Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives
for testing.
B. Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.
C. Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.
D. Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests. -
Correct Answers -B
Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?
A. I, II,III, IV and V.
B. IV, I, V, III and II.
C. IV, I, V, II and III.
D. I, IV, V, III and II. - Correct Answers -B
722: Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan.
Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?
A. Show that the system works before we ship it.
B. Find as many defects as possible.
C. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
D. Prevent defects through early involvement. - Correct Answers -A
723: Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?
A. Test management and control
B. Test specification and design
C. Test execution and logging
D. Performance and monitoring - Correct Answers -B
706: What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?
A. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.
B. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution
tool has been purchased.
C. The tool may find defects that aren't there.
D. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time. - Correct Answers
-A
707: Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
,A. Data-driven and keyword-driven
B. Data-driven and capture-driven
C. Capture-driven and keyhole-driven
D. Playback-driven and keyword-driven - Correct Answers -A
708: Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an
organization?
A. Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.
B. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.
C. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.
D. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool. -
Correct Answers -B
709: Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool
evaluation?
A. Decide which tool to acquire.
B. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.
C. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.
D. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and
the test assets - Correct Answers -D
710: What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?
A. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
B. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be
solved by the software or its components.
C. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
D. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the
system or components. - Correct Answers -B
711: An exhaustive test suite would include:
A. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
B. All combinations of input values and output values.
C. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
D. All states and state transitions. - Correct Answers -A
712: Which statement about testing is true?
A. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
, B. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to
work.
C. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
D. Testing can only be done by an independent test team. - Correct Answers -A
713: For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database,
which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all
of the steps?
1. Open database and confirm existing customer
2. Change customer's marital status from single to married
3. Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4. Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 750
5. Replace customer's first name with exactly the same first name
6. Close the customer record and close the database
A. Tests 1 and 4
B. Tests 2 and 3
C. Tests 5 and 6
D. Tests 3 and 5 - Correct Answers -D
714: Consider the following list of either product or project risks:
I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
B. II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.
C. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
D. III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks. -
Correct Answers -C
715: Consider the following statements about regression tests:
I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in
the system.
IV. They are only effective if automated. Which pair of statements is true?
A. I and II
B. I and III
