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. WGU D487 SECURE SW DESIGN Actual
Exam 2026/2027 3 Versions Complete
Questions and Verified Solutions A+ Grade
Assured Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION 1
SECTION 1: SECURE SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT FUNDAMENTALS (Questions 1 -15)
Q1 (Version 1): A software development team is implementing a new application and wants to
ensure that users can only access data they are explicitly authorized to view. Which security
principle is primarily being addressed?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality [CORRECT]
C. Non-repudiation
D. Accounting
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Confidentiality ensures that information is not disclosed to
unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes. Restricting data access to authorized users
directly supports confidentiality (B). Availability (A) ensures timely access. Non-repudiation (C)
prevents denying actions. Accounting (D) involves logging and monitoring.
Q2 (Version 1): During the requirements phase of a secure development lifecycle, the team
documents potential ways attackers could misuse the system. What is this activity called?
A. Use case modeling
B. Misuse case modeling [CORRECT]
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Misuse case modeling identifies how attackers might abuse
system functionality, complementing traditional use cases (B). Use cases (A) describe legitimate
,2
user interactions. Unit testing (C) and regression testing (D) are implementation-phase activities,
not requirements analysis.
Q3 (Version 1): A development team is implementing the Microsoft SDL. In which phase should
security requirements be defined?
A. Verification
B. Release
C. Requirements [CORRECT]
D. Response
Correct Answer: C Rationale: The Microsoft SDL requires security requirements to be defined
during the Requirements phase (C), establishing security goals early. Verification (A) involves
testing, Release (B) is deployment preparation, and Response (D) handles post-release security
incidents.
Q4 (Version 1): Which component of the AAA framework involves tracking user activities and
resource access?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Accounting [CORRECT]
D. Auditing
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Accounting (or auditing) in AAA involves logging and
monitoring user activities and resource usage for accountability (C). Authentication (A) verifies
identity. Authorization (B) determines access rights. While related, Auditing (D) is not the
standard AAA term.
Q5 (Version 1): An organization wants to ensure that critical financial transactions require
approval from two different employees. Which security principle does this implement?
A. Least privilege
B. Separation of duties [CORRECT]
C. Defense in depth
,3
D. Fail-safe defaults
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Separation of duties splits critical functions among multiple
individuals to prevent fraud and errors (B). Least privilege (A) limits access rights. Defense in
depth (C) uses multiple security layers. Fail-safe defaults (D) denies access by default.
Q6 (Version 1): In the NIST SSDF, which practice involves defining security requirements for
software?
A. Protect Software (PS)
B. Produce Well-Secured Software (PW)
C. Prepare the Organization (PO)
D. Respond to Vulnerabilities (RV)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: The "Produce Well-Secured Software" (PW) practice in NIST
SSDF includes defining security requirements (B). Protect Software (A) focuses on deployment
security. Prepare the Organization (C) establishes policies. Respond to Vulnerabilities (D)
handles incident response.
Q7 (Version 1): A system crashes and legitimate users cannot access critical services. Which
security property has been violated?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability [CORRECT]
D. Authenticity
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Availability ensures timely and reliable access to resources;
system crashes preventing access violate this property (C). Confidentiality (A) involves
unauthorized disclosure. Integrity (B) involves unauthorized modification. Authenticity (D)
verifies identity.
Q8 (Version 1): During an SDL assessment, the team identifies that users can perform
administrative functions without proper verification. Which phase should have caught this?
A. Design [CORRECT]
B. Coding
, 4
C. Testing
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Authorization flaws should be identified during the Design phase
through threat modeling and architecture review (A). While testing (C) might catch it, secure
design should prevent it. Coding (B) implements design, and Maintenance (D) occurs post-
deployment.
Q9 (Version 1): Which OWASP SAMM maturity level indicates that security practices are
consistently implemented across the organization?
A. Level 1: Initial
B. Level 2: Defined
C. Level 3: Consistent [CORRECT]
D. Level 4: Optimized
Correct Answer: C Rationale: OWASP SAMM Level 3 (Consistent) indicates security
practices are consistently implemented organization-wide (C). Level 1 (A) is ad-hoc. Level 2 (B)
is project-specific. SAMM does not have Level 4 (D); optimization is part of Level 3.
Q10 (Version 1): A developer ensures that if authentication fails, the system denies access rather
than granting default access. This exemplifies which principle?
A. Open design
B. Fail-safe defaults [CORRECT]
C. Economy of mechanism
D. Complete mediation
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Fail-safe defaults ensure that access is denied by default when
security checks fail (B). Open design (A) means security doesn't rely on secrecy. Economy of
mechanism (C) keeps designs simple. Complete mediation (D) verifies every access.
Q11 (Version 1): Which activity in secure requirements engineering involves creating scenarios
where attackers abuse system functionality?
A. Abuse case development [CORRECT]
. WGU D487 SECURE SW DESIGN Actual
Exam 2026/2027 3 Versions Complete
Questions and Verified Solutions A+ Grade
Assured Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION 1
SECTION 1: SECURE SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT FUNDAMENTALS (Questions 1 -15)
Q1 (Version 1): A software development team is implementing a new application and wants to
ensure that users can only access data they are explicitly authorized to view. Which security
principle is primarily being addressed?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality [CORRECT]
C. Non-repudiation
D. Accounting
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Confidentiality ensures that information is not disclosed to
unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes. Restricting data access to authorized users
directly supports confidentiality (B). Availability (A) ensures timely access. Non-repudiation (C)
prevents denying actions. Accounting (D) involves logging and monitoring.
Q2 (Version 1): During the requirements phase of a secure development lifecycle, the team
documents potential ways attackers could misuse the system. What is this activity called?
A. Use case modeling
B. Misuse case modeling [CORRECT]
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Misuse case modeling identifies how attackers might abuse
system functionality, complementing traditional use cases (B). Use cases (A) describe legitimate
,2
user interactions. Unit testing (C) and regression testing (D) are implementation-phase activities,
not requirements analysis.
Q3 (Version 1): A development team is implementing the Microsoft SDL. In which phase should
security requirements be defined?
A. Verification
B. Release
C. Requirements [CORRECT]
D. Response
Correct Answer: C Rationale: The Microsoft SDL requires security requirements to be defined
during the Requirements phase (C), establishing security goals early. Verification (A) involves
testing, Release (B) is deployment preparation, and Response (D) handles post-release security
incidents.
Q4 (Version 1): Which component of the AAA framework involves tracking user activities and
resource access?
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Accounting [CORRECT]
D. Auditing
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Accounting (or auditing) in AAA involves logging and
monitoring user activities and resource usage for accountability (C). Authentication (A) verifies
identity. Authorization (B) determines access rights. While related, Auditing (D) is not the
standard AAA term.
Q5 (Version 1): An organization wants to ensure that critical financial transactions require
approval from two different employees. Which security principle does this implement?
A. Least privilege
B. Separation of duties [CORRECT]
C. Defense in depth
,3
D. Fail-safe defaults
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Separation of duties splits critical functions among multiple
individuals to prevent fraud and errors (B). Least privilege (A) limits access rights. Defense in
depth (C) uses multiple security layers. Fail-safe defaults (D) denies access by default.
Q6 (Version 1): In the NIST SSDF, which practice involves defining security requirements for
software?
A. Protect Software (PS)
B. Produce Well-Secured Software (PW)
C. Prepare the Organization (PO)
D. Respond to Vulnerabilities (RV)
Correct Answer: B Rationale: The "Produce Well-Secured Software" (PW) practice in NIST
SSDF includes defining security requirements (B). Protect Software (A) focuses on deployment
security. Prepare the Organization (C) establishes policies. Respond to Vulnerabilities (D)
handles incident response.
Q7 (Version 1): A system crashes and legitimate users cannot access critical services. Which
security property has been violated?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability [CORRECT]
D. Authenticity
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Availability ensures timely and reliable access to resources;
system crashes preventing access violate this property (C). Confidentiality (A) involves
unauthorized disclosure. Integrity (B) involves unauthorized modification. Authenticity (D)
verifies identity.
Q8 (Version 1): During an SDL assessment, the team identifies that users can perform
administrative functions without proper verification. Which phase should have caught this?
A. Design [CORRECT]
B. Coding
, 4
C. Testing
D. Maintenance
Correct Answer: A Rationale: Authorization flaws should be identified during the Design phase
through threat modeling and architecture review (A). While testing (C) might catch it, secure
design should prevent it. Coding (B) implements design, and Maintenance (D) occurs post-
deployment.
Q9 (Version 1): Which OWASP SAMM maturity level indicates that security practices are
consistently implemented across the organization?
A. Level 1: Initial
B. Level 2: Defined
C. Level 3: Consistent [CORRECT]
D. Level 4: Optimized
Correct Answer: C Rationale: OWASP SAMM Level 3 (Consistent) indicates security
practices are consistently implemented organization-wide (C). Level 1 (A) is ad-hoc. Level 2 (B)
is project-specific. SAMM does not have Level 4 (D); optimization is part of Level 3.
Q10 (Version 1): A developer ensures that if authentication fails, the system denies access rather
than granting default access. This exemplifies which principle?
A. Open design
B. Fail-safe defaults [CORRECT]
C. Economy of mechanism
D. Complete mediation
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Fail-safe defaults ensure that access is denied by default when
security checks fail (B). Open design (A) means security doesn't rely on secrecy. Economy of
mechanism (C) keeps designs simple. Complete mediation (D) verifies every access.
Q11 (Version 1): Which activity in secure requirements engineering involves creating scenarios
where attackers abuse system functionality?
A. Abuse case development [CORRECT]
