1
CON 3900 CONTRACTING FINAL
EXAM Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Questions and Verified Answers Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ACQUISITION PLANNING AND STRATEGY (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A contracting officer is developing an acquisition strategy for a new information technology
system. Market research indicates that several commercial solutions are available that could meet
most, but not all, of the agency's requirements with minor modifications. Which type of
specification would be most appropriate to encourage innovation and allow offerors to propose
the best solution?
A. Design specification
B. Performance specification. [CORRECT]
C. Detailed specification
D. Brand name or equal specification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Performance specifications describe the required outcome or performance level
rather than how the work should be done, allowing offerors flexibility to propose innovative
solutions (B). Design/detailed specifications (A, C) prescribe exact methods and materials. Brand
name or equal (D) restricts competition to specific products.
Q2: An agency plans to acquire a complex weapon system over 10 years using a phased
approach with incremental capability deliveries. Which acquisition strategy best describes this
approach?
A. Single-step full capability delivery
B. Evolutionary acquisition with incremental development. [CORRECT]
C. Big bang deployment
D. Sole-source bridge contract
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evolutionary acquisition with incremental development delivers capability through
,2
multiple increments, allowing for fielding of initial capabilities while developing subsequent
increments (B). This reduces risk and allows for technology insertion. Single-step (A) and big
bang (C) approaches deliver full capability at once. Bridge contracts (D) are temporary
extensions.
Q3: During acquisition planning, the program manager and contracting officer establish an
Integrated Product Team (IPT). What is the primary purpose of the IPT in acquisition planning?
A. To conduct post-award contract administration
B. To integrate cross-functional expertise in developing acquisition strategies. [CORRECT]
C. To evaluate contractor proposals
D. To resolve contract disputes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IPTs bring together cross-functional expertise (contracting, technical, legal, financial,
logistics) to develop comprehensive acquisition strategies that balance cost, schedule, and
performance (B). IPTs operate during planning, not post-award administration (A) or proposal
evaluation (C). Dispute resolution (D) is handled through formal claims processes.
Q4: A contracting officer is conducting market research for a potential $5 million services
acquisition. Which of the following methods is LEAST appropriate for gathering market
information?
A. Issuing a Request for Information (RFI) to potential vendors
B. Reviewing the government's past experience with similar acquisitions
C. Conducting one-on-one negotiations with a single preferred vendor. [CORRECT]
D. Analyzing commercial market databases and publications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: One-on-one negotiations with a single preferred vendor during market research
improperly favor one competitor and compromise the integrity of the competitive process (C).
RFIs (A), past experience review (B), and commercial database analysis (D) are all appropriate,
unbiased market research methods per FAR 10.002.
Q5: An agency needs to acquire engineering services where the scope of work cannot be
precisely defined upfront, but the agency needs work to begin immediately. Which contract type
combination would be most appropriate?
A. Firm-fixed-price with economic price adjustment
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee with a ceiling price
,3
C. Time-and-materials for the initial phase, transitioning to fixed-price. [CORRECT]
D. Indefinite-delivery indefinite-quantity with fixed-price requirements
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Time-and-materials contracts are appropriate when the scope cannot be defined
upfront and work must begin immediately (C), with transition to fixed-price once requirements
are better defined. FFP (A) requires definite scope. CPFF (B) may be appropriate but doesn't
address the immediate start requirement. IDIQ (D) requires defined task orders.
Q6: A Performance Work Statement (PWS) is being developed for a facilities maintenance
contract. Which element is NOT required in a properly structured PWS?
A. Measurable performance standards
B. Method of surveillance and quality assurance
C. Detailed step-by-step procedures for performing the work. [CORRECT]
D. Performance objectives and desired outcomes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PWS focuses on outcomes and performance standards, not detailed procedures (C),
which would make it a design specification. Measurable standards (A), surveillance methods (B),
and performance objectives (D) are all essential PWS elements per performance-based
acquisition guidance.
Q7: During acquisition planning for a major system, the team identifies that the requirement is
urgent but the technical approach is not mature. Which acquisition strategy would best mitigate
risk while meeting the urgent need?
A. Full commitment to a single technical approach with fixed-price contracting
B. Spiral development with prototyping and competitive prototyping. [CORRECT]
C. Sole-source award to the incumbent contractor
D. Cost-plus-award-fee contract without technical milestones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spiral development allows for iterative development with user feedback and risk
reduction through prototyping (B). Full commitment to immature technology (A) creates high
risk. Sole-source (C) eliminates competition benefits. CPAF without milestones (D) lacks
necessary performance controls.
, 4
Q8: A contracting officer is determining whether to set aside an acquisition for small business.
The acquisition is valued at $150,000 and market research shows three capable small businesses
and two large businesses in the market. What is the appropriate action?
A. Award to the large business with the best technical approach
B. Set aside exclusively for small business participation. [CORRECT]
C. Conduct full and open competition without any restrictions
D. Set aside for 8(a) participants only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acquisitions between $25,000 and $250,000 must be set aside for small business
when there is a reasonable expectation of obtaining offers from at least two responsible small
business concerns (B). Full and open competition (C) violates the Rule of Two for this dollar
range. 8(a) set-aside (D) requires specific SBA approval.
Q9: Which document establishes the formal record that adequate market research was conducted
to support acquisition decisions?
A. Source Selection Decision Document
B. Market Research Report documenting methodology and results. [CORRECT]
C. Contracting Officer's Representative appointment letter
D. Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Market Research Report documents the methodology, sources consulted,
analysis performed, and conclusions reached, satisfying the requirement to maintain a record of
market research (B). The SSDD (A) documents source selection decisions. COR appointment
(C) and QASP (D) are post-award documents.
Q10: An agency is acquiring commercial satellite communication services. Which FAR part
provides the streamlined procedures specifically designed for commercial item acquisitions?
A. FAR Part 13 (Simplified Acquisition Procedures)
B. FAR Part 12 (Acquisition of Commercial Items). [CORRECT]
C. FAR Part 15 (Contracting by Negotiation)
D. FAR Part 14 (Sealed Bidding)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: FAR Part 12 provides special streamlined procedures for commercial items,
including simplified acquisition planning, limited cost or pricing data requirements, and tailored
CON 3900 CONTRACTING FINAL
EXAM Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Questions and Verified Answers Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: ACQUISITION PLANNING AND STRATEGY (Questions 1-20)
Q1: A contracting officer is developing an acquisition strategy for a new information technology
system. Market research indicates that several commercial solutions are available that could meet
most, but not all, of the agency's requirements with minor modifications. Which type of
specification would be most appropriate to encourage innovation and allow offerors to propose
the best solution?
A. Design specification
B. Performance specification. [CORRECT]
C. Detailed specification
D. Brand name or equal specification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Performance specifications describe the required outcome or performance level
rather than how the work should be done, allowing offerors flexibility to propose innovative
solutions (B). Design/detailed specifications (A, C) prescribe exact methods and materials. Brand
name or equal (D) restricts competition to specific products.
Q2: An agency plans to acquire a complex weapon system over 10 years using a phased
approach with incremental capability deliveries. Which acquisition strategy best describes this
approach?
A. Single-step full capability delivery
B. Evolutionary acquisition with incremental development. [CORRECT]
C. Big bang deployment
D. Sole-source bridge contract
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evolutionary acquisition with incremental development delivers capability through
,2
multiple increments, allowing for fielding of initial capabilities while developing subsequent
increments (B). This reduces risk and allows for technology insertion. Single-step (A) and big
bang (C) approaches deliver full capability at once. Bridge contracts (D) are temporary
extensions.
Q3: During acquisition planning, the program manager and contracting officer establish an
Integrated Product Team (IPT). What is the primary purpose of the IPT in acquisition planning?
A. To conduct post-award contract administration
B. To integrate cross-functional expertise in developing acquisition strategies. [CORRECT]
C. To evaluate contractor proposals
D. To resolve contract disputes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IPTs bring together cross-functional expertise (contracting, technical, legal, financial,
logistics) to develop comprehensive acquisition strategies that balance cost, schedule, and
performance (B). IPTs operate during planning, not post-award administration (A) or proposal
evaluation (C). Dispute resolution (D) is handled through formal claims processes.
Q4: A contracting officer is conducting market research for a potential $5 million services
acquisition. Which of the following methods is LEAST appropriate for gathering market
information?
A. Issuing a Request for Information (RFI) to potential vendors
B. Reviewing the government's past experience with similar acquisitions
C. Conducting one-on-one negotiations with a single preferred vendor. [CORRECT]
D. Analyzing commercial market databases and publications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: One-on-one negotiations with a single preferred vendor during market research
improperly favor one competitor and compromise the integrity of the competitive process (C).
RFIs (A), past experience review (B), and commercial database analysis (D) are all appropriate,
unbiased market research methods per FAR 10.002.
Q5: An agency needs to acquire engineering services where the scope of work cannot be
precisely defined upfront, but the agency needs work to begin immediately. Which contract type
combination would be most appropriate?
A. Firm-fixed-price with economic price adjustment
B. Cost-plus-fixed-fee with a ceiling price
,3
C. Time-and-materials for the initial phase, transitioning to fixed-price. [CORRECT]
D. Indefinite-delivery indefinite-quantity with fixed-price requirements
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Time-and-materials contracts are appropriate when the scope cannot be defined
upfront and work must begin immediately (C), with transition to fixed-price once requirements
are better defined. FFP (A) requires definite scope. CPFF (B) may be appropriate but doesn't
address the immediate start requirement. IDIQ (D) requires defined task orders.
Q6: A Performance Work Statement (PWS) is being developed for a facilities maintenance
contract. Which element is NOT required in a properly structured PWS?
A. Measurable performance standards
B. Method of surveillance and quality assurance
C. Detailed step-by-step procedures for performing the work. [CORRECT]
D. Performance objectives and desired outcomes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PWS focuses on outcomes and performance standards, not detailed procedures (C),
which would make it a design specification. Measurable standards (A), surveillance methods (B),
and performance objectives (D) are all essential PWS elements per performance-based
acquisition guidance.
Q7: During acquisition planning for a major system, the team identifies that the requirement is
urgent but the technical approach is not mature. Which acquisition strategy would best mitigate
risk while meeting the urgent need?
A. Full commitment to a single technical approach with fixed-price contracting
B. Spiral development with prototyping and competitive prototyping. [CORRECT]
C. Sole-source award to the incumbent contractor
D. Cost-plus-award-fee contract without technical milestones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spiral development allows for iterative development with user feedback and risk
reduction through prototyping (B). Full commitment to immature technology (A) creates high
risk. Sole-source (C) eliminates competition benefits. CPAF without milestones (D) lacks
necessary performance controls.
, 4
Q8: A contracting officer is determining whether to set aside an acquisition for small business.
The acquisition is valued at $150,000 and market research shows three capable small businesses
and two large businesses in the market. What is the appropriate action?
A. Award to the large business with the best technical approach
B. Set aside exclusively for small business participation. [CORRECT]
C. Conduct full and open competition without any restrictions
D. Set aside for 8(a) participants only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acquisitions between $25,000 and $250,000 must be set aside for small business
when there is a reasonable expectation of obtaining offers from at least two responsible small
business concerns (B). Full and open competition (C) violates the Rule of Two for this dollar
range. 8(a) set-aside (D) requires specific SBA approval.
Q9: Which document establishes the formal record that adequate market research was conducted
to support acquisition decisions?
A. Source Selection Decision Document
B. Market Research Report documenting methodology and results. [CORRECT]
C. Contracting Officer's Representative appointment letter
D. Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Market Research Report documents the methodology, sources consulted,
analysis performed, and conclusions reached, satisfying the requirement to maintain a record of
market research (B). The SSDD (A) documents source selection decisions. COR appointment
(C) and QASP (D) are post-award documents.
Q10: An agency is acquiring commercial satellite communication services. Which FAR part
provides the streamlined procedures specifically designed for commercial item acquisitions?
A. FAR Part 13 (Simplified Acquisition Procedures)
B. FAR Part 12 (Acquisition of Commercial Items). [CORRECT]
C. FAR Part 15 (Contracting by Negotiation)
D. FAR Part 14 (Sealed Bidding)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: FAR Part 12 provides special streamlined procedures for commercial items,
including simplified acquisition planning, limited cost or pricing data requirements, and tailored
