ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored 2023 Retake
Exam with NGN Version 3 (Verified Revised Full Exam)
1. A nurse is reviewing prenatal charts. Which client is at the greatest
risk for developing preeclampsia?
• A. Primigravida, age 19, with BMI of 22.
• B. Gravida 4, age 35, with history of type 2 diabetes.
• C. Gravida 2, age 25, with a history of urinary tract infections.
• D. Primigravida, age 30, carrying a single fetus.
• Answer: B
• Rationale: Risk factors for preeclampsia include advanced
maternal age (>35), chronic hypertension, pregestational
diabetes, obesity, multifetal gestation, and nulliparity. Option B
has two major risk factors.
2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the warning signs during
pregnancy. Which statement by a client indicates a need for further
teaching?
• A. "I should call the clinic if I have blurred vision."
• B. "Swelling in my feet at the end of the day is normal."
• C. "A gush of fluid from my vagina could mean my water broke."
• D. "It's okay if I have a small amount of vaginal spotting after
intercourse."
• Answer: D
, • Rationale: Any vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester
should be reported immediately. While spotting can occur after
intercourse due to a friable cervix, it is not considered "okay" and
warrants evaluation to rule out placenta previa or other
complications.
3. A client at 28-weeks gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
• A. "Drink a glass of milk immediately after eating."
• B. "Lie down for 30 minutes after meals to aid digestion."
• C. "Avoid eating foods that are high in fat or spice."
• D. "Take sodium bicarbonate for immediate relief."
• Answer: C
• Rationale: Heartburn (pyrosis) is caused by slowed gastric
emptying and relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter due to
progesterone. Avoiding fatty, spicy, or gas-forming foods helps
prevent reflux.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 32-weeks
gestation. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Hematocrit 34%
• C. White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
• D. Platelets 80,000/mm³
• Answer: D
• Rationale: Platelets normally decrease slightly in pregnancy but
should remain >150,000/mm³. A platelet count of 80,000
, (thrombocytopenia) is critically low and could indicate HELLP
syndrome or other bleeding risks. Leukocytosis (WBC up to
16,000) is normal in pregnancy.
5. A client with gestational diabetes is scheduled for a nonstress test
(NST). Which statement best explains the purpose of this test to the
client?
• A. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid around your baby."
• B. "It checks how your baby's heart rate responds to its own
movements."
• C. "It uses sound waves to look at your baby's organs."
• D. "It measures the contractions of your uterus."
• Answer: B
• Rationale: An NST monitors the fetal heart rate in response to
fetal movement. A "reactive" (reassuring) test shows two or more
accelerations in heart rate with movement over 20 minutes.
6. (NGN) A nurse is assessing a client at 34-weeks gestation who
reports a headache and blurred vision. Assessment findings: BP
162/98, 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities, and hyperreflexia with
clonus. Place the following nursing actions in the correct priority
order.
• A. Insert a Foley catheter.
• B. Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Place the client in a lateral position.
• D. Prepare for an emergent cesarean section.
• Answer: C, B, A, D
, • Rationale: Priority is to prevent seizures and optimize perfusion.
1. C (Lateral position): Improves placental perfusion and
reduces the risk of supine hypotension.
2. B (Magnesium sulfate): The anticonvulsant of choice to
prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia.
3. A (Foley catheter): Needed to strictly monitor urine output
(sign of renal function and magnesium toxicity).
4. D (Prep for C/S): Delivery is the only cure for preeclampsia.
7. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted. Which finding is
most concerning?
• A. Weight loss of 5 lbs over 2 weeks.
• B. Ketonuria present on urinalysis.
• C. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• D. Client reports feeling tired and dizzy.
• Answer: C
• Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) indicates severe
electrolyte imbalance from persistent vomiting. This can lead to
life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and requires immediate IV
replacement.
8. A client at 16-weeks gestation is Rh-negative and her husband is
Rh-positive. She asks why she needs a RhoGAM shot. Which response
is most accurate?
• A. "It prevents your body from making antibodies that could harm
future babies."
Exam with NGN Version 3 (Verified Revised Full Exam)
1. A nurse is reviewing prenatal charts. Which client is at the greatest
risk for developing preeclampsia?
• A. Primigravida, age 19, with BMI of 22.
• B. Gravida 4, age 35, with history of type 2 diabetes.
• C. Gravida 2, age 25, with a history of urinary tract infections.
• D. Primigravida, age 30, carrying a single fetus.
• Answer: B
• Rationale: Risk factors for preeclampsia include advanced
maternal age (>35), chronic hypertension, pregestational
diabetes, obesity, multifetal gestation, and nulliparity. Option B
has two major risk factors.
2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about the warning signs during
pregnancy. Which statement by a client indicates a need for further
teaching?
• A. "I should call the clinic if I have blurred vision."
• B. "Swelling in my feet at the end of the day is normal."
• C. "A gush of fluid from my vagina could mean my water broke."
• D. "It's okay if I have a small amount of vaginal spotting after
intercourse."
• Answer: D
, • Rationale: Any vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester
should be reported immediately. While spotting can occur after
intercourse due to a friable cervix, it is not considered "okay" and
warrants evaluation to rule out placenta previa or other
complications.
3. A client at 28-weeks gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
• A. "Drink a glass of milk immediately after eating."
• B. "Lie down for 30 minutes after meals to aid digestion."
• C. "Avoid eating foods that are high in fat or spice."
• D. "Take sodium bicarbonate for immediate relief."
• Answer: C
• Rationale: Heartburn (pyrosis) is caused by slowed gastric
emptying and relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter due to
progesterone. Avoiding fatty, spicy, or gas-forming foods helps
prevent reflux.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 32-weeks
gestation. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Hematocrit 34%
• C. White blood cell count 15,000/mm³
• D. Platelets 80,000/mm³
• Answer: D
• Rationale: Platelets normally decrease slightly in pregnancy but
should remain >150,000/mm³. A platelet count of 80,000
, (thrombocytopenia) is critically low and could indicate HELLP
syndrome or other bleeding risks. Leukocytosis (WBC up to
16,000) is normal in pregnancy.
5. A client with gestational diabetes is scheduled for a nonstress test
(NST). Which statement best explains the purpose of this test to the
client?
• A. "It measures the amount of amniotic fluid around your baby."
• B. "It checks how your baby's heart rate responds to its own
movements."
• C. "It uses sound waves to look at your baby's organs."
• D. "It measures the contractions of your uterus."
• Answer: B
• Rationale: An NST monitors the fetal heart rate in response to
fetal movement. A "reactive" (reassuring) test shows two or more
accelerations in heart rate with movement over 20 minutes.
6. (NGN) A nurse is assessing a client at 34-weeks gestation who
reports a headache and blurred vision. Assessment findings: BP
162/98, 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities, and hyperreflexia with
clonus. Place the following nursing actions in the correct priority
order.
• A. Insert a Foley catheter.
• B. Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Place the client in a lateral position.
• D. Prepare for an emergent cesarean section.
• Answer: C, B, A, D
, • Rationale: Priority is to prevent seizures and optimize perfusion.
1. C (Lateral position): Improves placental perfusion and
reduces the risk of supine hypotension.
2. B (Magnesium sulfate): The anticonvulsant of choice to
prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia.
3. A (Foley catheter): Needed to strictly monitor urine output
(sign of renal function and magnesium toxicity).
4. D (Prep for C/S): Delivery is the only cure for preeclampsia.
7. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is admitted. Which finding is
most concerning?
• A. Weight loss of 5 lbs over 2 weeks.
• B. Ketonuria present on urinalysis.
• C. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• D. Client reports feeling tired and dizzy.
• Answer: C
• Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) indicates severe
electrolyte imbalance from persistent vomiting. This can lead to
life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and requires immediate IV
replacement.
8. A client at 16-weeks gestation is Rh-negative and her husband is
Rh-positive. She asks why she needs a RhoGAM shot. Which response
is most accurate?
• A. "It prevents your body from making antibodies that could harm
future babies."
