NURS 5433 UNIVERSITY OF TEXAS -
ARLINGTON -NURS 5433 FNP II FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1.
A 56-year-old male presents with sudden-onset chest pain radiating to his left arm.
He is diaphoretic and nauseated. Vital signs: BP 88/56 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR
24, Temp 98.6°F. Which is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and monitor
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately and prepare for acute coronary syndrome
protocol
C. Prescribe oral aspirin and discharge home
D. Order a chest X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of an acute myocardial
infarction (MI) with hypotension. Immediate ECG and initiation of ACS protocol
are critical to reduce morbidity and mortality. Nitroglycerin may worsen
hypotension in this patient.
2.
A 32-year-old female presents with fatigue, pallor, and pica. Laboratory studies
reveal microcytic anemia with low ferritin. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia minor
D. Anemia of chronic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic anemia with low ferritin is characteristic of iron deficiency
,anemia. Pallor, fatigue, and pica support this diagnosis. Vitamin B12 deficiency
typically causes macrocytic anemia.
3.
A 42-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and
pleuritic chest pain. On examination: Temp 101.5°F, HR 96 bpm, crackles in the
right lower lobe. Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A. Azithromycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Supportive care only
Answer: A
Rationale: Community-acquired pneumonia in an otherwise healthy adult can be
treated empirically with a macrolide such as azithromycin. Fluoroquinolones are
reserved for patients with comorbidities or resistance risk.
4.
A 28-year-old female presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and unintentional weight
loss over the past month. Blood glucose is 342 mg/dL. Which test is most
appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. HbA1c
B. Fasting glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Serum ketones
Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of diabetes mellitus. HbA1c
≥6.5% confirms the diagnosis and reflects average glucose over 3 months. Fasting
glucose may be useful, but HbA1c provides more diagnostic reliability in this
context.
,5.
A 65-year-old male with hypertension presents for routine follow-up. His BP is
148/92 mmHg. He is currently on hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily. What is the
next best step?
A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose
B. Add an ACE inhibitor
C. Switch to beta-blocker
D. Recommend lifestyle modification only
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with uncontrolled hypertension on a thiazide, adding an
ACE inhibitor is appropriate to achieve BP goals and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Lifestyle modification is helpful but insufficient alone in this case.
6.
A patient presents with a non-healing ulcer on the plantar surface of the foot.
History reveals poorly controlled diabetes. Which of the following is the most
important next step?
A. Prescribe oral antibiotics empirically
B. Obtain a wound culture and refer to podiatry
C. Apply topical antiseptic only
D. Schedule routine follow-up in 4 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetic foot ulcers can become infected or progress to osteomyelitis.
Wound culture guides targeted antibiotic therapy, and referral to podiatry ensures
proper debridement and offloading.
, 7.
A 24-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis
shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. The most appropriate first-line
treatment is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Trimethoprim alone
D. Amoxicillin
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated urinary tract infections in
non-pregnant women. It covers common pathogens (E. coli) and has low resistance
rates. Ciprofloxacin is reserved for complicated cases.
8.
A patient with hyperlipidemia has a fasting lipid panel: LDL 180 mg/dL, HDL 35
mg/dL, triglycerides 120 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial
pharmacologic treatment?
A. Statin therapy
B. Fibrate therapy
C. Niacin therapy
D. Omega-3 fatty acids
Answer: A
Rationale: Statins are first-line therapy for elevated LDL > 160 mg/dL,
particularly in patients with cardiovascular risk. Fibrates and niacin are not
indicated as initial therapy for isolated high LDL.
ARLINGTON -NURS 5433 FNP II FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1.
A 56-year-old male presents with sudden-onset chest pain radiating to his left arm.
He is diaphoretic and nauseated. Vital signs: BP 88/56 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR
24, Temp 98.6°F. Which is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and monitor
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately and prepare for acute coronary syndrome
protocol
C. Prescribe oral aspirin and discharge home
D. Order a chest X-ray
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of an acute myocardial
infarction (MI) with hypotension. Immediate ECG and initiation of ACS protocol
are critical to reduce morbidity and mortality. Nitroglycerin may worsen
hypotension in this patient.
2.
A 32-year-old female presents with fatigue, pallor, and pica. Laboratory studies
reveal microcytic anemia with low ferritin. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Thalassemia minor
D. Anemia of chronic disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Microcytic anemia with low ferritin is characteristic of iron deficiency
,anemia. Pallor, fatigue, and pica support this diagnosis. Vitamin B12 deficiency
typically causes macrocytic anemia.
3.
A 42-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and
pleuritic chest pain. On examination: Temp 101.5°F, HR 96 bpm, crackles in the
right lower lobe. Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A. Azithromycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Supportive care only
Answer: A
Rationale: Community-acquired pneumonia in an otherwise healthy adult can be
treated empirically with a macrolide such as azithromycin. Fluoroquinolones are
reserved for patients with comorbidities or resistance risk.
4.
A 28-year-old female presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and unintentional weight
loss over the past month. Blood glucose is 342 mg/dL. Which test is most
appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. HbA1c
B. Fasting glucose
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Serum ketones
Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with classic signs of diabetes mellitus. HbA1c
≥6.5% confirms the diagnosis and reflects average glucose over 3 months. Fasting
glucose may be useful, but HbA1c provides more diagnostic reliability in this
context.
,5.
A 65-year-old male with hypertension presents for routine follow-up. His BP is
148/92 mmHg. He is currently on hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily. What is the
next best step?
A. Increase hydrochlorothiazide dose
B. Add an ACE inhibitor
C. Switch to beta-blocker
D. Recommend lifestyle modification only
Answer: B
Rationale: For patients with uncontrolled hypertension on a thiazide, adding an
ACE inhibitor is appropriate to achieve BP goals and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Lifestyle modification is helpful but insufficient alone in this case.
6.
A patient presents with a non-healing ulcer on the plantar surface of the foot.
History reveals poorly controlled diabetes. Which of the following is the most
important next step?
A. Prescribe oral antibiotics empirically
B. Obtain a wound culture and refer to podiatry
C. Apply topical antiseptic only
D. Schedule routine follow-up in 4 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Diabetic foot ulcers can become infected or progress to osteomyelitis.
Wound culture guides targeted antibiotic therapy, and referral to podiatry ensures
proper debridement and offloading.
, 7.
A 24-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis
shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. The most appropriate first-line
treatment is:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin
C. Trimethoprim alone
D. Amoxicillin
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is first-line for uncomplicated urinary tract infections in
non-pregnant women. It covers common pathogens (E. coli) and has low resistance
rates. Ciprofloxacin is reserved for complicated cases.
8.
A patient with hyperlipidemia has a fasting lipid panel: LDL 180 mg/dL, HDL 35
mg/dL, triglycerides 120 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate initial
pharmacologic treatment?
A. Statin therapy
B. Fibrate therapy
C. Niacin therapy
D. Omega-3 fatty acids
Answer: A
Rationale: Statins are first-line therapy for elevated LDL > 160 mg/dL,
particularly in patients with cardiovascular risk. Fibrates and niacin are not
indicated as initial therapy for isolated high LDL.
