BIOD 331 Module 6 Exam Portage Learning Questions and
Answers 2026
Module 6 (Disorders of White Blood Cells and Lymphoid Tissues
1. Which white blood cell is the most numerous and serves as the "first
responder" to bacterial infection?
A) Lymphocyte
B) Eosinophil
C) Neutrophil
D) Basophil
Answer: C
Rationale: Neutrophils make up 60–70% of WBCs and are the primary phagocytes in
acute inflammation.
2. "Leukocytosis" is defined as:
A) A decrease in WBC count.
B) An increase in WBC count (usually above 10,000/µL).
C) The presence of cancer in the blood.
D) A lack of platelets.
Answer: B
Rationale: This is a normal protective response to stressors like infection or
inflammation.
3. A patient with a neutrophil count below 500/µL is at high risk for:
A) Viral infections.
B) Life-threatening bacterial infections.
C) Excessive bleeding.
D) High blood pressure.
Answer: B
Rationale: This severe neutropenia means the body cannot mount an initial defense
against common bacteria.
4. "Infectious Mononucleosis" is primarily caused by which virus?
A) HIV
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
D) Influenza
,Answer: C
Rationale: EBV infects B-lymphocytes, leading to the characteristic "mono" symptoms.
5. Which of the following is a classic clinical "triad" of symptoms for
Mononucleosis?
A) Fever, sore throat, and generalized lymphadenopathy.
B) Cough, runny nose, and sneezing.
C) High blood pressure, headache, and blurry vision.
D) Weight loss, night sweats, and bone pain.
Answer: A
Rationale: These three symptoms are the most common presentations of EBV infection.
6. "Leukemias" are classified based on which two factors?
A) Age and Gender.
B) Predominant cell type (Lymphocytic vs. Myelocytic) and onset (Acute vs. Chronic).
C) Color and Size.
D) Location in the body.
Answer: B
Rationale: This classification helps determine treatment and prognosis.
7. "Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia" (ALL) is most commonly seen in:
A) Elderly men.
B) Middle-aged women.
C) Children.
D) Newborns only.
Answer: C
Rationale: ALL is the most common malignancy in children and adolescents.
8. "Philadelphia Chromosome" (translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22) is
the hallmark of:
A) Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).
B) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).
C) Hodgkin Lymphoma.
D) Infectious Mononucleosis.
Answer: B
Rationale: This genetic marker results in the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which drives CML.
9. "Reed-Sternberg Cells" are the diagnostic marker for:
A) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin Lymphoma.
C) Multiple Myeloma.
, D) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.
Answer: B
Rationale: These large, multi-nucleated cells (often called "owl eyes") are found only in
Hodgkin Lymphoma.
10. "Multiple Myeloma" is a malignancy of which cell type?
A) Neutrophils
B) T-cells
C) Plasma Cells (B-cells)
D) Red blood cells
Answer: C
Rationale: It involves the proliferation of malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow.
11. Which protein found in the urine is diagnostic for Multiple Myeloma?
A) Albumin
B) Bence-Jones Protein
C) Hemoglobin
D) Bilirubin
Answer: B
Rationale: These are light-chain antibodies produced by malignant plasma cells.
12. A common complication of Multiple Myeloma due to bone destruction is:
A) Hypocalcemia.
B) Pathological fractures and Hypercalcemia.
C) Low blood pressure.
D) Improved bone density.
Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant cells activate osteoclasts, which break down bone, leading to
fractures and high calcium levels in the blood.
13. "Pancytopenia" in acute leukemia occurs because:
A) The white cells are eating the red cells.
B) Malignant cells "crowd out" normal hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow.
C) The patient isn't eating enough.
D) The spleen is too small.
Answer: B
Rationale: The overproduction of "blasts" prevents the marrow from making normal
RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
14. "Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia" (CLL) primarily affects:
A) Infants.
Answers 2026
Module 6 (Disorders of White Blood Cells and Lymphoid Tissues
1. Which white blood cell is the most numerous and serves as the "first
responder" to bacterial infection?
A) Lymphocyte
B) Eosinophil
C) Neutrophil
D) Basophil
Answer: C
Rationale: Neutrophils make up 60–70% of WBCs and are the primary phagocytes in
acute inflammation.
2. "Leukocytosis" is defined as:
A) A decrease in WBC count.
B) An increase in WBC count (usually above 10,000/µL).
C) The presence of cancer in the blood.
D) A lack of platelets.
Answer: B
Rationale: This is a normal protective response to stressors like infection or
inflammation.
3. A patient with a neutrophil count below 500/µL is at high risk for:
A) Viral infections.
B) Life-threatening bacterial infections.
C) Excessive bleeding.
D) High blood pressure.
Answer: B
Rationale: This severe neutropenia means the body cannot mount an initial defense
against common bacteria.
4. "Infectious Mononucleosis" is primarily caused by which virus?
A) HIV
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
D) Influenza
,Answer: C
Rationale: EBV infects B-lymphocytes, leading to the characteristic "mono" symptoms.
5. Which of the following is a classic clinical "triad" of symptoms for
Mononucleosis?
A) Fever, sore throat, and generalized lymphadenopathy.
B) Cough, runny nose, and sneezing.
C) High blood pressure, headache, and blurry vision.
D) Weight loss, night sweats, and bone pain.
Answer: A
Rationale: These three symptoms are the most common presentations of EBV infection.
6. "Leukemias" are classified based on which two factors?
A) Age and Gender.
B) Predominant cell type (Lymphocytic vs. Myelocytic) and onset (Acute vs. Chronic).
C) Color and Size.
D) Location in the body.
Answer: B
Rationale: This classification helps determine treatment and prognosis.
7. "Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia" (ALL) is most commonly seen in:
A) Elderly men.
B) Middle-aged women.
C) Children.
D) Newborns only.
Answer: C
Rationale: ALL is the most common malignancy in children and adolescents.
8. "Philadelphia Chromosome" (translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22) is
the hallmark of:
A) Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML).
B) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).
C) Hodgkin Lymphoma.
D) Infectious Mononucleosis.
Answer: B
Rationale: This genetic marker results in the BCR-ABL fusion gene, which drives CML.
9. "Reed-Sternberg Cells" are the diagnostic marker for:
A) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin Lymphoma.
C) Multiple Myeloma.
, D) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia.
Answer: B
Rationale: These large, multi-nucleated cells (often called "owl eyes") are found only in
Hodgkin Lymphoma.
10. "Multiple Myeloma" is a malignancy of which cell type?
A) Neutrophils
B) T-cells
C) Plasma Cells (B-cells)
D) Red blood cells
Answer: C
Rationale: It involves the proliferation of malignant plasma cells in the bone marrow.
11. Which protein found in the urine is diagnostic for Multiple Myeloma?
A) Albumin
B) Bence-Jones Protein
C) Hemoglobin
D) Bilirubin
Answer: B
Rationale: These are light-chain antibodies produced by malignant plasma cells.
12. A common complication of Multiple Myeloma due to bone destruction is:
A) Hypocalcemia.
B) Pathological fractures and Hypercalcemia.
C) Low blood pressure.
D) Improved bone density.
Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant cells activate osteoclasts, which break down bone, leading to
fractures and high calcium levels in the blood.
13. "Pancytopenia" in acute leukemia occurs because:
A) The white cells are eating the red cells.
B) Malignant cells "crowd out" normal hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow.
C) The patient isn't eating enough.
D) The spleen is too small.
Answer: B
Rationale: The overproduction of "blasts" prevents the marrow from making normal
RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
14. "Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia" (CLL) primarily affects:
A) Infants.
