, TESTBANK FOR Lashley's Essentials of Clinical
Genetics in Nursing Practice, Second Edition Kasper
Notes
1- The file is chapter after chapter.
2- We have shown you few pages sample.
3- The file contains all Appendix and Excel sheet
if it exists.
4- We have all what you need, we make update
at every time. There are many new editions
waiting you.
5- If you think you purchased the wrong file You
can contact us at every time, we can replace it
with true one.
Our email:
, Contents
Chapter
2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Chapter
3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Chapter
4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Chapter
5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Chapter
6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Chapter
7 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
Chapter
8 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Chapter
9 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
Chapter
10 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
Chapter
11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Chapter
12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
Chapter
13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
, MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
Chapter 2
CATEGORY: CHROMOSOMES
1. A species of fly has a diploid chromosome number of 12. How many chromosomes and
chromatids will be present in a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a. 12 chromosomes: 12
chromatids b. 12 chromosomes:
24 chromatids c. 6 chromosomes:
6 chromatids
d. 6 chromosomes: 12 chromatids
e. 24 chromosomes: 24
chromatids
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: CELL CYCLE
2. Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle is correct?
a. All cells are continually moving through the phases of the cell cycle.
b. The cell in inactive during gap phases G1 and G2.
c. DNA is replicated during M phase.
d. Loss of cell cycle checkpoints can lead to
cancer.
e. A checkpoint in S phase is important for preventing non-disjunction.
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: MEIOSIS
3. When is meiosis I completed during oogenesis?
a. At 6 months of embryonic development
b. At puberty
c. When an egg is released during ovulation
d. At fertilization
Answer:
c.
,CATEGORY: CHROMOSOMES AND INHERITANCE
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding individuals who are heterozygous
for a recessive allele?
a. They express the dominant allele.
b. They are carriers of the recessive allele.
c. They have a 50% chance of passing the recessive allele onto their
children. d. They express the traits of both alleles.
Answer: d .
CATEGORY: THE STRUCTURE OF DNA
5. Given the following sequence of one strand of DNA, predict the complementary DNA
sequence.
5’ GCTTAGCAGC 3’
a. 3’ CGAATCGTCG 5’
b. 3’ CGAAUCGAGC 5’
c. 3’ GCTTAGCAGC 5’
d. 3’ CGACGATTCG 5’
Answer: a .
CATEGORY: TRANSCRIPTION
6. The DNA of the CFTR gene which is mutated in individuals suffering from Cystic fibrosis
consists of 216,000 nucleotides, however the mRNA transcribed from this gene is only
6,128 nucleotides long. What accounts for this size difference?
a. The DNA is double-stranded structure and the RNA is single stranded.
b. There are more amino acids coded for by the DNA than the mRNA.
c. mRNA processing has spliced out the introns.
d. mRNA processing has spliced out the exons.
e. When the mRNA is produced, it is highly folded and therefore less long.
Answer: c .
,CATEGORY: THE GENETIC CODE
7. How many nucleotides would be required to code for a protein which is 300 amino acids in
length?
a. 3
b.100
c. 300
d. 900
e.1200
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: TRANSLATION
8. In the process of translation,
a. the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into DNA.
b. the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into mRNA.
c. ribosomes assemble amino acids using an mRNA
template.
d. RNA polymerase assembles amino acids according to the codons in DNA.
e. All of the above.
Answer:
c.
CATEGORY: MUTATIONS
9. Which of the following mutations would produce the biggest change in the amino acid
sequence of the resulting protein?
a. Substitution of a single nucleotide at the 3’ end of the coding sequence of a
gene b. Deletion of a nucleotide near the 3’ end of the coding sequence of a gene
c. Deletion of three nucleotides in the middle of the coding sequence of a gene
d. Insertion of a single nucleotide at the 5’ end of the coding sequence of a
gene e. Insertion of a single nucleotide at the 3’ end of the coding sequence of
a gene
Answer:
d.
, CATEGORY: MOLECULAR TECHNIQUES
10. Which of the following statements describing the properties of the Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is incorrect?
a. PCR can replicate large quantities of DNA from a single cell.
b. Amplification of DNA by PCR depends on primers finding an exact match in the
template.
c. PCR is used to create a karyotype.
d. PCR uses the same enzyme that is used by the cell for DNA replication.
e. A PCR reaction is used in paternity testing.
Answer: c .
, Chapter 3
1. An Rh-negative woman marries an Rh-positive man. Please identify which of their
offspring would be at greatest risk for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn:
I. The first pregnancy, because the mother has never before been exposed to the
Rh-antigen.
II. The first viable pregnancy following previous lost or unsuccessful pregnancies.
III. The second viable pregnancy or any later pregnancies.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. All of the above
Answer: c .
2. Please identify the risk factor(s) known to increase Rh-antigen sensitization in Rh-negative
mothers:
a. Administration of Rh immunoglobulin.
b. Previous blood transfusion
c. Abdominal hemorrhage, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, cesarean section, early
pregnancy abortion (spontaneous, induced)
d. Both b and c
Answer: d .
3. The HLA-B27 antigen and ankylosing spondylitis, an inflammatory joint disease, are
strongly associated. The Rh antigen genes D/d, E/e, and C/c are closely linked. What is
the difference between genetic association and linkage?
a. Linkage is when genes are in close physical proximity to one another on the
same chromosome.
b. Both a and c.
c. Association is when a certain allele is found significantly more or less in a group of
patients with a specific marker/disease than is expected by chance.
d. There is no difference.
Answer: b .
,4. 90% to 95% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are also positive for the HLA-B27
antigen. However, the chances of an HLA-B27 antigen positive patient developing this
condition are estimated at 5-20%. What principle does this contrast illustrate?
a. Relative Risk
b. Linkage Disequilibrium
c. Epigenetics
d. Heteroplasmy
Answer: a .
5. An individual at a particular locus has a genetic polymorphism, where TGA is repeated
10 times: TGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGA. This is an example of what kind of
polymorphism?
a. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)
b. Short Tandem Repeat (STR)
c. Variable Number Tandem Repeat (VNTR)
d. Insertion/Deletion (Indel)
Answer c .
6. Mrs. Smith recently purchased a personalized genetic test that evaluated her risk of
developing common diseases in the future. The laboratory performing the test sequenced
Mrs. Smith’s Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNP) at loci known to impact risk of
developing multifactorial conditions. Mrs. Smith’s genetic results indicated she had a high
risk SNP allele for Type 2 Diabetes. Given these results, how should the nurse caring for
Mrs. Smith proceed?
a. Immediate referral to a genetics counselor
b. Conduct an assessment of Mrs. Smith’s lifestyle and health habits related to the risk of
type 2 Diabetes development, such as physical activity, nutrition, and body mass index
c. Referral for Type 2 Diabetes evaluation
d. Provide patient education to Mrs. Smith that most SNPs do not result in severe disease.
However, a high risk genotype in addition to unhealthy habits could result in earlier
development of Type 2 diabetes
e. Both b and d
Answer: e .
, 7. Which of the following polymorphisms is expected to have the most severe clinical impact?
Assume no amino acid switches unless specified.
a. c .-754 G>A
b. m .6443 C>G
c.
p .Phe540Phe
d.
g .129478G>C
Answer: a .
8. Which of the following can impact allele frequencies in populations?
a. genetic mutations
b. consanguineous mating
c. migration
d. severe environmental impacts, disasters
e. All of the above
Answer: e .
9. There are 1,200 people who live in a small town and are tested for a genetic condition.
Homozygotes AA = 982, heterozygotes AB = 206, homozygotes BB = 12. What are
the genotype and allele frequencies?
a. AA 0.762, AB 0.143, BB 0.095; A=0.854,
B=0.146 b. AA 0.818, AB 0.172, BB 0.01;
A=0.904, B=0.096 c. AA 0.856, AB 0.134, BB
0.01; A=0.926, B=0.074 d. None of the above
Answer: b .
10. Which example best illustrates the principle of selective advantage?
a. VKORC1 -1639 G>A SNP genotype AA and warfarin
b. Blood Type AB and Rh antigen Dd
c. HLA-DQB1*0602 and narcolepsy
d. Plasmodium falciparum malaria and Hemoglobin SA heterozygotes
Answer: d .
Genetics in Nursing Practice, Second Edition Kasper
Notes
1- The file is chapter after chapter.
2- We have shown you few pages sample.
3- The file contains all Appendix and Excel sheet
if it exists.
4- We have all what you need, we make update
at every time. There are many new editions
waiting you.
5- If you think you purchased the wrong file You
can contact us at every time, we can replace it
with true one.
Our email:
, Contents
Chapter
2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Chapter
3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Chapter
4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Chapter
5 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Chapter
6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Chapter
7 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
Chapter
8 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Chapter
9 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
Chapter
10 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
Chapter
11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Chapter
12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
Chapter
13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
, MULTIPLE CHOICE
QUESTIONS
Chapter 2
CATEGORY: CHROMOSOMES
1. A species of fly has a diploid chromosome number of 12. How many chromosomes and
chromatids will be present in a cell at the end of meiosis I?
a. 12 chromosomes: 12
chromatids b. 12 chromosomes:
24 chromatids c. 6 chromosomes:
6 chromatids
d. 6 chromosomes: 12 chromatids
e. 24 chromosomes: 24
chromatids
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: CELL CYCLE
2. Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle is correct?
a. All cells are continually moving through the phases of the cell cycle.
b. The cell in inactive during gap phases G1 and G2.
c. DNA is replicated during M phase.
d. Loss of cell cycle checkpoints can lead to
cancer.
e. A checkpoint in S phase is important for preventing non-disjunction.
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: MEIOSIS
3. When is meiosis I completed during oogenesis?
a. At 6 months of embryonic development
b. At puberty
c. When an egg is released during ovulation
d. At fertilization
Answer:
c.
,CATEGORY: CHROMOSOMES AND INHERITANCE
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding individuals who are heterozygous
for a recessive allele?
a. They express the dominant allele.
b. They are carriers of the recessive allele.
c. They have a 50% chance of passing the recessive allele onto their
children. d. They express the traits of both alleles.
Answer: d .
CATEGORY: THE STRUCTURE OF DNA
5. Given the following sequence of one strand of DNA, predict the complementary DNA
sequence.
5’ GCTTAGCAGC 3’
a. 3’ CGAATCGTCG 5’
b. 3’ CGAAUCGAGC 5’
c. 3’ GCTTAGCAGC 5’
d. 3’ CGACGATTCG 5’
Answer: a .
CATEGORY: TRANSCRIPTION
6. The DNA of the CFTR gene which is mutated in individuals suffering from Cystic fibrosis
consists of 216,000 nucleotides, however the mRNA transcribed from this gene is only
6,128 nucleotides long. What accounts for this size difference?
a. The DNA is double-stranded structure and the RNA is single stranded.
b. There are more amino acids coded for by the DNA than the mRNA.
c. mRNA processing has spliced out the introns.
d. mRNA processing has spliced out the exons.
e. When the mRNA is produced, it is highly folded and therefore less long.
Answer: c .
,CATEGORY: THE GENETIC CODE
7. How many nucleotides would be required to code for a protein which is 300 amino acids in
length?
a. 3
b.100
c. 300
d. 900
e.1200
Answer:
d.
CATEGORY: TRANSLATION
8. In the process of translation,
a. the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into DNA.
b. the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into mRNA.
c. ribosomes assemble amino acids using an mRNA
template.
d. RNA polymerase assembles amino acids according to the codons in DNA.
e. All of the above.
Answer:
c.
CATEGORY: MUTATIONS
9. Which of the following mutations would produce the biggest change in the amino acid
sequence of the resulting protein?
a. Substitution of a single nucleotide at the 3’ end of the coding sequence of a
gene b. Deletion of a nucleotide near the 3’ end of the coding sequence of a gene
c. Deletion of three nucleotides in the middle of the coding sequence of a gene
d. Insertion of a single nucleotide at the 5’ end of the coding sequence of a
gene e. Insertion of a single nucleotide at the 3’ end of the coding sequence of
a gene
Answer:
d.
, CATEGORY: MOLECULAR TECHNIQUES
10. Which of the following statements describing the properties of the Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is incorrect?
a. PCR can replicate large quantities of DNA from a single cell.
b. Amplification of DNA by PCR depends on primers finding an exact match in the
template.
c. PCR is used to create a karyotype.
d. PCR uses the same enzyme that is used by the cell for DNA replication.
e. A PCR reaction is used in paternity testing.
Answer: c .
, Chapter 3
1. An Rh-negative woman marries an Rh-positive man. Please identify which of their
offspring would be at greatest risk for development of hemolytic disease of the newborn:
I. The first pregnancy, because the mother has never before been exposed to the
Rh-antigen.
II. The first viable pregnancy following previous lost or unsuccessful pregnancies.
III. The second viable pregnancy or any later pregnancies.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. All of the above
Answer: c .
2. Please identify the risk factor(s) known to increase Rh-antigen sensitization in Rh-negative
mothers:
a. Administration of Rh immunoglobulin.
b. Previous blood transfusion
c. Abdominal hemorrhage, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, cesarean section, early
pregnancy abortion (spontaneous, induced)
d. Both b and c
Answer: d .
3. The HLA-B27 antigen and ankylosing spondylitis, an inflammatory joint disease, are
strongly associated. The Rh antigen genes D/d, E/e, and C/c are closely linked. What is
the difference between genetic association and linkage?
a. Linkage is when genes are in close physical proximity to one another on the
same chromosome.
b. Both a and c.
c. Association is when a certain allele is found significantly more or less in a group of
patients with a specific marker/disease than is expected by chance.
d. There is no difference.
Answer: b .
,4. 90% to 95% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are also positive for the HLA-B27
antigen. However, the chances of an HLA-B27 antigen positive patient developing this
condition are estimated at 5-20%. What principle does this contrast illustrate?
a. Relative Risk
b. Linkage Disequilibrium
c. Epigenetics
d. Heteroplasmy
Answer: a .
5. An individual at a particular locus has a genetic polymorphism, where TGA is repeated
10 times: TGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGATGA. This is an example of what kind of
polymorphism?
a. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP)
b. Short Tandem Repeat (STR)
c. Variable Number Tandem Repeat (VNTR)
d. Insertion/Deletion (Indel)
Answer c .
6. Mrs. Smith recently purchased a personalized genetic test that evaluated her risk of
developing common diseases in the future. The laboratory performing the test sequenced
Mrs. Smith’s Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNP) at loci known to impact risk of
developing multifactorial conditions. Mrs. Smith’s genetic results indicated she had a high
risk SNP allele for Type 2 Diabetes. Given these results, how should the nurse caring for
Mrs. Smith proceed?
a. Immediate referral to a genetics counselor
b. Conduct an assessment of Mrs. Smith’s lifestyle and health habits related to the risk of
type 2 Diabetes development, such as physical activity, nutrition, and body mass index
c. Referral for Type 2 Diabetes evaluation
d. Provide patient education to Mrs. Smith that most SNPs do not result in severe disease.
However, a high risk genotype in addition to unhealthy habits could result in earlier
development of Type 2 diabetes
e. Both b and d
Answer: e .
, 7. Which of the following polymorphisms is expected to have the most severe clinical impact?
Assume no amino acid switches unless specified.
a. c .-754 G>A
b. m .6443 C>G
c.
p .Phe540Phe
d.
g .129478G>C
Answer: a .
8. Which of the following can impact allele frequencies in populations?
a. genetic mutations
b. consanguineous mating
c. migration
d. severe environmental impacts, disasters
e. All of the above
Answer: e .
9. There are 1,200 people who live in a small town and are tested for a genetic condition.
Homozygotes AA = 982, heterozygotes AB = 206, homozygotes BB = 12. What are
the genotype and allele frequencies?
a. AA 0.762, AB 0.143, BB 0.095; A=0.854,
B=0.146 b. AA 0.818, AB 0.172, BB 0.01;
A=0.904, B=0.096 c. AA 0.856, AB 0.134, BB
0.01; A=0.926, B=0.074 d. None of the above
Answer: b .
10. Which example best illustrates the principle of selective advantage?
a. VKORC1 -1639 G>A SNP genotype AA and warfarin
b. Blood Type AB and Rh antigen Dd
c. HLA-DQB1*0602 and narcolepsy
d. Plasmodium falciparum malaria and Hemoglobin SA heterozygotes
Answer: d .
