NU 640 INTRODUCTION TO
WOMEN’S HEALTH
ACROSS THE LIFESPAN
FINAL EXAM
Exam Elaborations Questions & Answers
2026
A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles and
hirsutism. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to confirm polycystic
ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) Serum progesterone level
B) Serum testosterone and LH/FSH ratio
C) Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness
D) Serum prolactin only
Answer: B) Serum testosterone and LH/FSH ratio
Rationale: PCOS diagnosis involves identifying hyperandrogenism typically
via elevated serum testosterone and an increased LH to FSH ratio,
combined with clinical signs. Ultrasound is adjunctive but hormonal testing
is key.
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman is concerned about osteoporosis risk.
Which intervention is supported by current evidence-based guidelines to
reduce her fracture risk?
A) Daily high-dose vitamin C supplementation
B) Weight-bearing exercise and calcium/vitamin D supplementation
C) Strict bed rest to prevent falls
D) High-protein diet without exercise
Answer: B) Weight-bearing exercise and calcium/vitamin D supplementation
Rationale: Weight-bearing exercise strengthens bones, and adequate
calcium and vitamin D reduce osteoporosis risk. High-dose vitamin C or
strict bed rest are not evidence-based interventions.
True or False: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
,recommends low-dose aspirin for all pregnant women starting after 12
weeks gestation to prevent preeclampsia.
Answer: False
Rationale: Low-dose aspirin is recommended only for women at high risk for
preeclampsia, not universally. Blanket use is not indicated due to bleeding
risks.
Fill in the blank: The primary marker used to screen for ovarian cancer in
women with suspicious adnexal masses is __________.
Answer: CA-125
Rationale: CA-125 is a tumor marker commonly elevated in ovarian cancer
and part of the screening/diagnostic workup for adnexal masses, though not
specific alone.
A nurse is assessing a 25-year-old woman who is three months postpartum
and reports severe mood swings, crying spells, and thoughts of harming
herself. Which condition is the nurse most concerned about?
A) Postpartum blues
B) Postpartum anxiety
C) Postpartum depression
D) Postpartum psychosis
Answer: D) Postpartum psychosis
Rationale: Severe mood changes with suicidal thoughts postpartum raise
concern for postpartum psychosis, a psychiatric emergency distinct from
depression or blues.
True or False: Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indicated for the
prevention of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.
Answer: False
Rationale: HRT is not recommended solely for cardiovascular disease
prevention due to potential risks outweighing benefits; it is primarily used
to alleviate menopausal symptoms.
In managing a woman diagnosed with gestational diabetes, the first-line
treatment includes:
A) Initiation of insulin therapy immediately
B) Dietary modification and exercise
C) Oral hypoglycemic agents without dietary changes
D) Bed rest and glucose monitoring only
Answer: B) Dietary modification and exercise
Rationale: Evidence-based practice recommends lifestyle modification as
,first-line therapy in gestational diabetes before considering medications.
Fill in the blank: The most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in
adolescents is __________.
Answer: anovulatory cycles
Rationale: Immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis function leads to
irregular ovulation, causing abnormal bleeding patterns in adolescents.
A 40-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer asks about the safety
of combined oral contraceptives. The nurse's best response is:
A) They are safe and recommended for menstrual regulation.
B) They are contraindicated due to increased breast cancer risk.
C) Use is allowed only if under oncologist supervision.
D) They reduce breast cancer recurrence risk.
Answer: B) They are contraindicated due to increased breast cancer risk.
Rationale: Combined oral contraceptives are generally contraindicated in
women with a history of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer due to
potential risk of recurrence.
True or False: The initial cervical cancer screening should start at age 21
regardless of sexual activity.
Answer: True
Rationale: Guidelines recommend initiating cervical cancer screening at age
21 regardless of sexual activity because precancerous changes may develop
over time.
In premenstrual syndrome (PMS) management, which of the following
medications is evidence-supported for severe symptoms?
A) NSAIDs
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Beta-blockers
Answer: B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Rationale: SSRIs have been found effective in reducing severe mood
symptoms associated with PMS and PMDD.
Fill in the blank: The term used to describe infertility due to problems with
ovulation is __________.
Answer: anovulation
Rationale: Anovulation indicates lack of ovulation and is a common cause of
female infertility.
, A 45-year-old woman with heavy menstrual bleeding is found to have
uterine fibroids causing anemia. According to current guidelines, first-line
management should focus on:
A) Hysterectomy
B) Iron supplementation and medical therapy such as tranexamic acid
C) Immediate surgical myomectomy
D) Watchful waiting only
Answer: B) Iron supplementation and medical therapy such as tranexamic
acid
Rationale: Conservative management aiming to reduce bleeding and correct
anemia is first-line before invasive interventions.
True or False: In the assessment of female sexual dysfunction, a
biopsychosocial approach is essential for effective management.
Answer: True
Rationale: Female sexual dysfunction is multifactorial involving biological,
psychological, and social factors requiring comprehensive assessment.
Fill in the blank: The recommended vaccine to prevent human
papillomavirus (HPV)-related cervical cancer is the __________ vaccine.
Answer: HPV (Gardasil or Cervarix)
Rationale: HPV vaccines are highly effective in preventing cervical cancer
caused by high-risk HPV strains.
In evaluating a woman at 35 weeks gestation with sudden painless vaginal
bleeding and a normal fetal heart rate, which condition should be
considered first?
A) Placenta previa
B) Placental abruption
C) Preterm labor
D) Uterine rupture
Answer: A) Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless bleeding in late pregnancy with normal fetal status
suggests placenta previa, a common cause of third-trimester bleeding.
A nurse is teaching a woman about menopause. Which symptom is least
likely to be attributed to menopause?
A) Hot flashes
B) Vaginal dryness
C) Increased bone density
D) Sleep disturbances