AACN Certification CCRN/PCCN Critical
Care Exam 1 with Questions and
Correct Answers Latest Updated
AACN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certify nurses; protect consumer by establishing
high standards of professional practice
CCRN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for nurses who provide care in
critically ill adult, pediatric, or neonatal populations
PCCN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for nurses who provide acute care in
progressive care, telemetry, and similar units
CNML - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for critical care managers and
leaders
CCNS - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for acute and critical care clinical
nurse specialists
Level A (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-meta-
analysis or metasynthesis studies; results consistently support specific action,
intervention, or treatment
Level B (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
randomized and nonrandomized controlled studies; results consistently
support specific action, intervention, or treatment
Level C (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
qualitative, descriptive, or correlational studies, reviews, or trials with
inconsistent results
Level D (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-Peer-
reviewed with clinical studies to support recommendations
Level E (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-theory-
based evidence from expert opinions
Level M (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
Manufacturer's recommendation only
,Ask-Tell-Ask (Communication) - CORRECT ANSWERS-Communication
technique that assesses concerns before providing info
Situational Awareness (Communication) - CORRECT ANSWERS-being aware
of one's surroundings
Calgary Family Assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS-Assessment that involves
structural, developmental, and functional assessments
Family Bundle - CORRECT ANSWERS-Provide structure for planning and
carrying out family care; based on 5 concepts: evaluate, plan; involve;
communicate; support (EPICS)
Principlism - CORRECT ANSWERS-widely applied ethical approach based of 4
fundamental moral principles to contemporary ethical dilemmas; respect for
autonomy; beneficence; nonmaleficence; justice
Beneficence - CORRECT ANSWERS-the duty to provide benefits to others
when in a position to do so, to help balance harms and benefits; the benefits of
an action should outweigh the burdens
Futility - CORRECT ANSWERS-states that care should not be given if it is futile
in terms of improving comfort or the medical outcome
Veracity - CORRECT ANSWERS-states that persons are obligated to tell the
truth in their communication with others
Fidelity - CORRECT ANSWERS-requires that one has a moral duty to be faithful
to the commitments made to others
Elements of Informed Consent - CORRECT ANSWERS-competence (capacity);
voluntariness; disclosure of information
Living Will - CORRECT ANSWERS-a witnessed written document or oral
statement voluntarily executed by a person that expresses the person's
instructions concerning life-prolonging procedure; not legally binding in some
states
Proxy - CORRECT ANSWERS-a competent adult, not designated to make health
care decisions for an incapacitated person, but is authorized by state statute to
make healthcare decisions for the person
Surrogate - CORRECT ANSWERS-a competent adult designated by a person to
make health care decisions should that person become incapacitated
, Patient Self-Determination act (End-of-life issue) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
requires that all healthcare facilities that receive medicare or medicaid funding
inform their patients about their right to initiate an advance directive and the
right to consent to or refuse medical treatment
Withholding, Limiting, or Withdrawing Therapy - CORRECT ANSWERS-Priority
should be anticipating patient symptoms; assessment of patient response;
titration of therapy to relieve emotional and physical distress; common meds
used are analgesics (ie. Morphine) and anxiolytics (ie. benzodiazepines)
Ventilator WIthdrawal - CORRECT ANSWERS-Known as "terminal weaning";
consist of titration of ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of ventilator,
but not artificial airway, or complete extubation; titrate pain meds and sedation
as needed to relieve symptoms of respiratory distress
Commonly withheld therapy - CORRECT ANSWERS-vasopressors; antibiotics;
done when goal of treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these
before withdrawing or withholding ventilation
Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment -
CORRECT ANSWERS-life-sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while
patient is receiving paralytic agents. When paralytic drugs are discontinued,
patient must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow thorough clinical
assessment before withdrawal of support
Hemodynamic Assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS-Used to titrate therapies to
a specific end point; detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of
disease; and guide therapy
normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-4 to
8 L/minute
normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP)
(hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-2 to 6 mm Hg
Normal stroke volume (SV) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-60 to
130 mL/beat
normal mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT
ANSWERS-60% to 75%
Normal central venous O2 sat (ScvO2) - CORRECT ANSWERS-65% to 85%
what affects BP reading - CORRECT ANSWERS-presence of cardiac
dysrhythmias; respiratory variation; shivering; external cuff compression;
decreased peripheral perfusion
Care Exam 1 with Questions and
Correct Answers Latest Updated
AACN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certify nurses; protect consumer by establishing
high standards of professional practice
CCRN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for nurses who provide care in
critically ill adult, pediatric, or neonatal populations
PCCN - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for nurses who provide acute care in
progressive care, telemetry, and similar units
CNML - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for critical care managers and
leaders
CCNS - CORRECT ANSWERS-certification for acute and critical care clinical
nurse specialists
Level A (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-meta-
analysis or metasynthesis studies; results consistently support specific action,
intervention, or treatment
Level B (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
randomized and nonrandomized controlled studies; results consistently
support specific action, intervention, or treatment
Level C (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
qualitative, descriptive, or correlational studies, reviews, or trials with
inconsistent results
Level D (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-Peer-
reviewed with clinical studies to support recommendations
Level E (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-theory-
based evidence from expert opinions
Level M (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
Manufacturer's recommendation only
,Ask-Tell-Ask (Communication) - CORRECT ANSWERS-Communication
technique that assesses concerns before providing info
Situational Awareness (Communication) - CORRECT ANSWERS-being aware
of one's surroundings
Calgary Family Assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS-Assessment that involves
structural, developmental, and functional assessments
Family Bundle - CORRECT ANSWERS-Provide structure for planning and
carrying out family care; based on 5 concepts: evaluate, plan; involve;
communicate; support (EPICS)
Principlism - CORRECT ANSWERS-widely applied ethical approach based of 4
fundamental moral principles to contemporary ethical dilemmas; respect for
autonomy; beneficence; nonmaleficence; justice
Beneficence - CORRECT ANSWERS-the duty to provide benefits to others
when in a position to do so, to help balance harms and benefits; the benefits of
an action should outweigh the burdens
Futility - CORRECT ANSWERS-states that care should not be given if it is futile
in terms of improving comfort or the medical outcome
Veracity - CORRECT ANSWERS-states that persons are obligated to tell the
truth in their communication with others
Fidelity - CORRECT ANSWERS-requires that one has a moral duty to be faithful
to the commitments made to others
Elements of Informed Consent - CORRECT ANSWERS-competence (capacity);
voluntariness; disclosure of information
Living Will - CORRECT ANSWERS-a witnessed written document or oral
statement voluntarily executed by a person that expresses the person's
instructions concerning life-prolonging procedure; not legally binding in some
states
Proxy - CORRECT ANSWERS-a competent adult, not designated to make health
care decisions for an incapacitated person, but is authorized by state statute to
make healthcare decisions for the person
Surrogate - CORRECT ANSWERS-a competent adult designated by a person to
make health care decisions should that person become incapacitated
, Patient Self-Determination act (End-of-life issue) - CORRECT ANSWERS-
requires that all healthcare facilities that receive medicare or medicaid funding
inform their patients about their right to initiate an advance directive and the
right to consent to or refuse medical treatment
Withholding, Limiting, or Withdrawing Therapy - CORRECT ANSWERS-Priority
should be anticipating patient symptoms; assessment of patient response;
titration of therapy to relieve emotional and physical distress; common meds
used are analgesics (ie. Morphine) and anxiolytics (ie. benzodiazepines)
Ventilator WIthdrawal - CORRECT ANSWERS-Known as "terminal weaning";
consist of titration of ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of ventilator,
but not artificial airway, or complete extubation; titrate pain meds and sedation
as needed to relieve symptoms of respiratory distress
Commonly withheld therapy - CORRECT ANSWERS-vasopressors; antibiotics;
done when goal of treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these
before withdrawing or withholding ventilation
Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment -
CORRECT ANSWERS-life-sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while
patient is receiving paralytic agents. When paralytic drugs are discontinued,
patient must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow thorough clinical
assessment before withdrawal of support
Hemodynamic Assessment - CORRECT ANSWERS-Used to titrate therapies to
a specific end point; detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of
disease; and guide therapy
normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-4 to
8 L/minute
normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP)
(hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-2 to 6 mm Hg
Normal stroke volume (SV) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT ANSWERS-60 to
130 mL/beat
normal mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2) (hemodynamic values) - CORRECT
ANSWERS-60% to 75%
Normal central venous O2 sat (ScvO2) - CORRECT ANSWERS-65% to 85%
what affects BP reading - CORRECT ANSWERS-presence of cardiac
dysrhythmias; respiratory variation; shivering; external cuff compression;
decreased peripheral perfusion
