CARDIAC TEST BANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
100% VERIFIED.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ECG. The nurse
notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac
rhythm strip. How should the nurse best respond?
A) Recognize that the view of the electrical current changes in
relation to the lead placement.
B) Recognize that the electrophysiological conduction of the heart
differs with lead placement.
C) Inform the technician that the ECG equipment has
malfunctioned.
D) Inform the physician that the patient is experiencing a new
onset of dysrhythmia. -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
Each lead offers a different reference point to view the electrical
activity of the heart. The lead displays the configuration of
electrical activity of the heart. Differences between leads are not
necessarily attributable to equipment malfunction or dysrhythmias.
The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What component of the
ECG corresponds to the resting state of the patient's heart?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) U wave
D) QRS complex -
- correct answer -Ans: B
Feedback:
,The T wave specifically represents ventricular muscle
depolarization, also referred to as the resting state. Ventricular
muscle depolarization does not result in the P wave, U wave, or
QRS complex.
The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac
dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the
patient?
A) Maintain a resting heart rate below 70 bpm.
B) Maintain adequate control of chest pain.
C) Maintain adequate cardiac output.
D) Maintain normal cardiac structure. -
- correct answer -Ans: C
Feedback:
For patient safety, the most appropriate goal is to maintain cardiac
output to prevent worsening complications as a result of decreased
cardiac output. A resting rate of less than 70 bpm is not
appropriate for every patient. Chest pain is more closely
associated with acute coronary syndrome than with dysrhythmias.
Nursing actions cannot normally influence the physical structure of
the heart.
The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into
ventricular fibrillation. When assisting with defibrillating the patient,
what must the nurse do?
A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin.
B) Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent.
C) Call "all clear" once before discharging the defibrillator.
D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode. -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
,When defibrillating an adult patient, the nurse should maintain
good contact between the paddles and the patient's skin to prevent
arcing, apply an appropriate conducting agent (not water) between
the skin and the paddles, and ensure the defibrillator is in the
nonsync mode. "Clear" should be called three times before
discharging the paddles.
A patient who is a candidate for an implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD) asks the nurse about the purpose of this device.
What would be the nurse's best response?
A) "To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation
and ventricular tachycardia"
B) "To detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow
heart rate"
C) "To detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats
too quickly and inefficiently"
D) "To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home" -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
The ICD is a device that detects and terminates life-threatening
episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It
does not treat atrial fibrillation, MI, or bradycardia.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. What is the priority area for
the nurse's assessment?
A) Assessing the patient's activity level
B) Facilitating transthoracic echocardiography
C) Vigilant monitoring of the patient's ECG
D) Close monitoring of the patient's peripheral perfusion -
- correct answer -Ans: C
, Feedback:
After a permanent electronic device (pacemaker or ICD) is inserted,
the patient's heart rate and rhythm are monitored by ECG. This is
a priority over peripheral circulation and activity. Echocardiography
is not indicated.
During a patient's care conference, the team is discussing whether
the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What
would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this
surgery?
A) Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments
B) Decreased activity tolerance related to decreased cardiac
output
C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other
treatments
D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments -
- correct answer -Ans: C
Feedback:
Cardiac conduction surgery is considered in patients who do not
respond to medications and antitachycardia pacing. Angina,
reduced activity tolerance, and ventricular fibrillation are not criteria.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular
tachycardia (VT). Because the patient is pulseless, the nurse
should prepare for what intervention?
A) Defibrillation
B) ECG monitoring
C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator
D) Angioplasty -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
100% VERIFIED.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has had an ECG. The nurse
notes that leads I, II, and III differ from one another on the cardiac
rhythm strip. How should the nurse best respond?
A) Recognize that the view of the electrical current changes in
relation to the lead placement.
B) Recognize that the electrophysiological conduction of the heart
differs with lead placement.
C) Inform the technician that the ECG equipment has
malfunctioned.
D) Inform the physician that the patient is experiencing a new
onset of dysrhythmia. -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
Each lead offers a different reference point to view the electrical
activity of the heart. The lead displays the configuration of
electrical activity of the heart. Differences between leads are not
necessarily attributable to equipment malfunction or dysrhythmias.
The nurse is analyzing a rhythm strip. What component of the
ECG corresponds to the resting state of the patient's heart?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) U wave
D) QRS complex -
- correct answer -Ans: B
Feedback:
,The T wave specifically represents ventricular muscle
depolarization, also referred to as the resting state. Ventricular
muscle depolarization does not result in the P wave, U wave, or
QRS complex.
The nurse is writing a plan of care for a patient with a cardiac
dysrhythmia. What would be the most appropriate goal for the
patient?
A) Maintain a resting heart rate below 70 bpm.
B) Maintain adequate control of chest pain.
C) Maintain adequate cardiac output.
D) Maintain normal cardiac structure. -
- correct answer -Ans: C
Feedback:
For patient safety, the most appropriate goal is to maintain cardiac
output to prevent worsening complications as a result of decreased
cardiac output. A resting rate of less than 70 bpm is not
appropriate for every patient. Chest pain is more closely
associated with acute coronary syndrome than with dysrhythmias.
Nursing actions cannot normally influence the physical structure of
the heart.
The nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gone into
ventricular fibrillation. When assisting with defibrillating the patient,
what must the nurse do?
A) Maintain firm contact between paddles and patient skin.
B) Apply a layer of water as a conducting agent.
C) Call "all clear" once before discharging the defibrillator.
D) Ensure the defibrillator is in the sync mode. -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
,When defibrillating an adult patient, the nurse should maintain
good contact between the paddles and the patient's skin to prevent
arcing, apply an appropriate conducting agent (not water) between
the skin and the paddles, and ensure the defibrillator is in the
nonsync mode. "Clear" should be called three times before
discharging the paddles.
A patient who is a candidate for an implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD) asks the nurse about the purpose of this device.
What would be the nurse's best response?
A) "To detect and treat dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation
and ventricular tachycardia"
B) "To detect and treat bradycardia, which is an excessively slow
heart rate"
C) "To detect and treat atrial fibrillation, in which your heart beats
too quickly and inefficiently"
D) "To shock your heart if you have a heart attack at home" -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
The ICD is a device that detects and terminates life-threatening
episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It
does not treat atrial fibrillation, MI, or bradycardia.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) placed. What is the priority area for
the nurse's assessment?
A) Assessing the patient's activity level
B) Facilitating transthoracic echocardiography
C) Vigilant monitoring of the patient's ECG
D) Close monitoring of the patient's peripheral perfusion -
- correct answer -Ans: C
, Feedback:
After a permanent electronic device (pacemaker or ICD) is inserted,
the patient's heart rate and rhythm are monitored by ECG. This is
a priority over peripheral circulation and activity. Echocardiography
is not indicated.
During a patient's care conference, the team is discussing whether
the patient is a candidate for cardiac conduction surgery. What
would be the most important criterion for a patient to have this
surgery?
A) Angina pectoris not responsive to other treatments
B) Decreased activity tolerance related to decreased cardiac
output
C) Atrial and ventricular tachycardias not responsive to other
treatments
D) Ventricular fibrillation not responsive to other treatments -
- correct answer -Ans: C
Feedback:
Cardiac conduction surgery is considered in patients who do not
respond to medications and antitachycardia pacing. Angina,
reduced activity tolerance, and ventricular fibrillation are not criteria.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is exhibiting ventricular
tachycardia (VT). Because the patient is pulseless, the nurse
should prepare for what intervention?
A) Defibrillation
B) ECG monitoring
C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator
D) Angioplasty -
- correct answer -Ans: A
Feedback:
