SAEM Set 1 Exam Questions with 100% Verified Solutions – 2025/2026 | Exams of
Medicine Graded A+ | Approved Pass
Core Domains: Emergency Medicine Core Content, Resuscitation & Critical Care, Trauma
Management, Cardiovascular Emergencies, Neurologic Emergencies, Respiratory Emergencies,
Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary Emergencies, Infectious Disease Emergencies, Environmental &
Toxicological Emergencies, Hematologic & Oncologic Emergencies, Endocrine & Metabolic Emergencies,
Obstetric & Gynecologic Emergencies, Pediatric Emergencies, Psychiatric & Behavioral Emergencies,
Emergency Ultrasound, Evidence-Based Emergency Medicine Practice
Exam Structure: 150 multiple-choice questions designed to evaluate diagnostic acumen, resuscitation
priorities, emergency pharmacology, and evidence-based management of acutely ill and injured patients
across the emergency care continuum.
Select the best answer for each question.interventions are in bold green.
[Resuscitation & Critical Care]
1. A 55-year-old male presents to the ED in cardiac arrest. The initial rhythm is ventricular
fibrillation. What is the first intervention?
A) Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
B) Defibrillate with 200 J biphasic energy
C) Intubate the patient
D) Start an IV and give amiodarone 300 mg IV
Immediate defibrillation is the first intervention for ventricular fibrillation in cardiac
arrest (ACLS, 2025).
,2. A patient in septic shock has a lactate of 5 mmol/L and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg.
What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Initiate IV fluid resuscitation with 30 mL/kg of crystalloid
C) Start norepinephrine infusion
D) Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen
Early, aggressive fluid resuscitation is the priority in septic shock to improve tissue
perfusion and reduce lactate (Surviving Sepsis Campaign, 2025).
3. A patient with severe traumatic brain injury has a GCS of 6. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Administer mannitol 1 g/kg IV
B) Intubate and hyperventilate to a PaCO2 of 30-35 mmHg
C) Perform a CT scan of the head
D) Administer phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Airway management and controlled hyperventilation reduce intracranial pressure in
severe TBI (BTF Guidelines, 2025).
4. A patient with anaphylaxis presents with stridor and hypotension. What is the first-line
treatment?
A) Administer diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
, B) Administer epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM
C) Start an IV and give methylprednisolone 125 mg IV
D) Administer albuterol nebulizer
IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse
bronchoconstriction and hypotension (ACEP, 2025).
5. A patient with massive hemoptysis is hypotensive. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer tranexamic acid 1 g IV
B) Intubate with a large-bore endotracheal tube and prepare for bronchoscopy
C) Start vasopressors
D) Perform a CT angiogram of the chest
Airway protection and localization of bleeding with bronchoscopy are critical in massive
hemoptysis (SAEM, 2025).
[Trauma Management]
6. A 25-year-old male presents after a motorcycle crash with a GCS of 14 and tenderness in
the left upper quadrant. What is the next step?
A) Administer morphine 4 mg IV
B) Perform a FAST exam
, C) Order a CT scan of the abdomen
D) Insert a nasogastric tube
FAST exam is the initial diagnostic tool of choice for blunt abdominal trauma to assess
for free fluid (ATLS, 2025).
7. A patient with a pelvic fracture is hemodynamically unstable. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Administer 2 units of packed red blood cells
B) Apply a pelvic binder and initiate massive transfusion protocol
C) Perform a CT scan of the pelvis
D) Insert a Foley catheter
Pelvic binders reduce bleeding from pelvic fractures, and massive transfusion protocol
addresses hemorrhagic shock (ATLS, 2025).
8. A patient with a penetrating chest wound has absent breath sounds on the left. What is
the first intervention?
A) Perform a chest X-ray
B) Place a chest tube on the left side
C) Administer 1 L of normal saline IV
D) Intubate the patient
Medicine Graded A+ | Approved Pass
Core Domains: Emergency Medicine Core Content, Resuscitation & Critical Care, Trauma
Management, Cardiovascular Emergencies, Neurologic Emergencies, Respiratory Emergencies,
Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary Emergencies, Infectious Disease Emergencies, Environmental &
Toxicological Emergencies, Hematologic & Oncologic Emergencies, Endocrine & Metabolic Emergencies,
Obstetric & Gynecologic Emergencies, Pediatric Emergencies, Psychiatric & Behavioral Emergencies,
Emergency Ultrasound, Evidence-Based Emergency Medicine Practice
Exam Structure: 150 multiple-choice questions designed to evaluate diagnostic acumen, resuscitation
priorities, emergency pharmacology, and evidence-based management of acutely ill and injured patients
across the emergency care continuum.
Select the best answer for each question.interventions are in bold green.
[Resuscitation & Critical Care]
1. A 55-year-old male presents to the ED in cardiac arrest. The initial rhythm is ventricular
fibrillation. What is the first intervention?
A) Administer epinephrine 1 mg IV
B) Defibrillate with 200 J biphasic energy
C) Intubate the patient
D) Start an IV and give amiodarone 300 mg IV
Immediate defibrillation is the first intervention for ventricular fibrillation in cardiac
arrest (ACLS, 2025).
,2. A patient in septic shock has a lactate of 5 mmol/L and a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg.
What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Initiate IV fluid resuscitation with 30 mL/kg of crystalloid
C) Start norepinephrine infusion
D) Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen
Early, aggressive fluid resuscitation is the priority in septic shock to improve tissue
perfusion and reduce lactate (Surviving Sepsis Campaign, 2025).
3. A patient with severe traumatic brain injury has a GCS of 6. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Administer mannitol 1 g/kg IV
B) Intubate and hyperventilate to a PaCO2 of 30-35 mmHg
C) Perform a CT scan of the head
D) Administer phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Airway management and controlled hyperventilation reduce intracranial pressure in
severe TBI (BTF Guidelines, 2025).
4. A patient with anaphylaxis presents with stridor and hypotension. What is the first-line
treatment?
A) Administer diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
, B) Administer epinephrine 0.3-0.5 mg IM
C) Start an IV and give methylprednisolone 125 mg IV
D) Administer albuterol nebulizer
IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse
bronchoconstriction and hypotension (ACEP, 2025).
5. A patient with massive hemoptysis is hypotensive. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer tranexamic acid 1 g IV
B) Intubate with a large-bore endotracheal tube and prepare for bronchoscopy
C) Start vasopressors
D) Perform a CT angiogram of the chest
Airway protection and localization of bleeding with bronchoscopy are critical in massive
hemoptysis (SAEM, 2025).
[Trauma Management]
6. A 25-year-old male presents after a motorcycle crash with a GCS of 14 and tenderness in
the left upper quadrant. What is the next step?
A) Administer morphine 4 mg IV
B) Perform a FAST exam
, C) Order a CT scan of the abdomen
D) Insert a nasogastric tube
FAST exam is the initial diagnostic tool of choice for blunt abdominal trauma to assess
for free fluid (ATLS, 2025).
7. A patient with a pelvic fracture is hemodynamically unstable. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Administer 2 units of packed red blood cells
B) Apply a pelvic binder and initiate massive transfusion protocol
C) Perform a CT scan of the pelvis
D) Insert a Foley catheter
Pelvic binders reduce bleeding from pelvic fractures, and massive transfusion protocol
addresses hemorrhagic shock (ATLS, 2025).
8. A patient with a penetrating chest wound has absent breath sounds on the left. What is
the first intervention?
A) Perform a chest X-ray
B) Place a chest tube on the left side
C) Administer 1 L of normal saline IV
D) Intubate the patient
