2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
HESI exit exam questions ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ - LATEST UPDATE 2026 TESTBANK
1. A client with pneumonia has productive cough and fever. Which nursing action is priority?
A. Encourage fluid intake
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Assess lung sounds
D. Provide oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment comes first to determine severity and guide interventions.
2. A postoperative client is disoriented and restless. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Pain level
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Vital signs only
D. Wound site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and confusion may indicate hypoxia; airway and oxygenation are priorities.
3. A client with DKA has blood glucose 480 mg/dL. Which is priority?
A. Administer insulin
B. Provide oral glucose
C. Restrict fluids
D. Give potassium immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: IV insulin is required to reduce hyperglycemia and reverse acidosis.
4. A client taking warfarin reports nosebleeds. Which action is priority?
A. Document findings
B. Hold medication and notify provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Monitor blood pressure
,2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bleeding is a serious side effect; anticoagulant should be held.
5. Peaked T waves on ECG indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High potassium affects cardiac conduction, producing peaked T waves.
6. Postoperative client has hypotension and tachycardia. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Assess for bleeding
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Provide pain medication
D. Monitor temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypotension and tachycardia may indicate hypovolemic shock; identify cause
immediately.
7. A client with COPD is short of breath. Optimal position is:
A. High Fowler’s
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation.
8. Which medication should a client with renal failure avoid?
A. NSAIDs
B. Metformin
C. Albuterol
D. Acetaminophen
,2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs reduce renal perfusion and worsen kidney function.
9. A client on heparin has an aPTT of 85 sec (normal 25–35). Action?
A. Increase infusion
B. Hold heparin and notify provider
C. Continue current dose
D. Monitor potassium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated aPTT indicates bleeding risk; infusion must be held.
10. A client with pancreatitis should avoid:
A. High-fat foods
B. Low-fat diet
C. Clear liquids
D. Applesauce
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fat stimulates pancreatic secretions, worsening symptoms.
11. Hypovolemic shock manifests as:
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. Bounding pulse
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sympathetic activation constricts vessels, producing cool, clammy skin.
12. Digoxin toxicity presents with:
A. Nausea, vomiting, visual changes
B. Hypertension
C. Hyperactivity
D. Increased appetite
, 2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GI symptoms and vision changes are hallmark signs of digoxin toxicity.
13. DVT treatment includes:
A. Bedrest and anticoagulants
B. Aggressive ambulation
C. High-fat diet
D. Restrict fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bedrest prevents clot dislodgment; anticoagulants prevent propagation.
14. Anemia presents with:
A. Fatigue and pallor
B. Hyperactivity
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity causes fatigue and pallor.
15. SIADH causes:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Excess ADH leads to water retention, diluting sodium.
16. Addison’s disease requires:
A. Increased sodium intake
B. Fluid restriction
C. Potassium supplements only
D. High-protein diet
HESI exit exam questions ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY
GRADED A+ - LATEST UPDATE 2026 TESTBANK
1. A client with pneumonia has productive cough and fever. Which nursing action is priority?
A. Encourage fluid intake
B. Administer antipyretics
C. Assess lung sounds
D. Provide oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment comes first to determine severity and guide interventions.
2. A postoperative client is disoriented and restless. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Pain level
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Vital signs only
D. Wound site
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and confusion may indicate hypoxia; airway and oxygenation are priorities.
3. A client with DKA has blood glucose 480 mg/dL. Which is priority?
A. Administer insulin
B. Provide oral glucose
C. Restrict fluids
D. Give potassium immediately
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: IV insulin is required to reduce hyperglycemia and reverse acidosis.
4. A client taking warfarin reports nosebleeds. Which action is priority?
A. Document findings
B. Hold medication and notify provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Monitor blood pressure
,2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bleeding is a serious side effect; anticoagulant should be held.
5. Peaked T waves on ECG indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High potassium affects cardiac conduction, producing peaked T waves.
6. Postoperative client has hypotension and tachycardia. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Assess for bleeding
B. Encourage ambulation
C. Provide pain medication
D. Monitor temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypotension and tachycardia may indicate hypovolemic shock; identify cause
immediately.
7. A client with COPD is short of breath. Optimal position is:
A. High Fowler’s
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Upright positioning promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation.
8. Which medication should a client with renal failure avoid?
A. NSAIDs
B. Metformin
C. Albuterol
D. Acetaminophen
,2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: NSAIDs reduce renal perfusion and worsen kidney function.
9. A client on heparin has an aPTT of 85 sec (normal 25–35). Action?
A. Increase infusion
B. Hold heparin and notify provider
C. Continue current dose
D. Monitor potassium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated aPTT indicates bleeding risk; infusion must be held.
10. A client with pancreatitis should avoid:
A. High-fat foods
B. Low-fat diet
C. Clear liquids
D. Applesauce
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fat stimulates pancreatic secretions, worsening symptoms.
11. Hypovolemic shock manifests as:
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. Bounding pulse
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sympathetic activation constricts vessels, producing cool, clammy skin.
12. Digoxin toxicity presents with:
A. Nausea, vomiting, visual changes
B. Hypertension
C. Hyperactivity
D. Increased appetite
, 2026 GRADED A+ UPDATED FOR 2026/2027
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GI symptoms and vision changes are hallmark signs of digoxin toxicity.
13. DVT treatment includes:
A. Bedrest and anticoagulants
B. Aggressive ambulation
C. High-fat diet
D. Restrict fluids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bedrest prevents clot dislodgment; anticoagulants prevent propagation.
14. Anemia presents with:
A. Fatigue and pallor
B. Hyperactivity
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity causes fatigue and pallor.
15. SIADH causes:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Excess ADH leads to water retention, diluting sodium.
16. Addison’s disease requires:
A. Increased sodium intake
B. Fluid restriction
C. Potassium supplements only
D. High-protein diet
