Hesi Anatomy and Physiology Midterm Exam 2

Hesi Anatomy and Physiology Midterm Exam 2Hesi Anatomy and Physiology Midterm Exam 2 Skin All of the following are functions of the skin, except: a) Flexibility b) Protection c) Secretion Should be excretion d) Immunity What is the reverse order (bottom to top) of the structure of the skin? a) Dermis, Epidermis, Dermoepidermal junction b) Hypodermis, Dermis, Epidermis c) Dermis, Hypodermis, Epidermis The two main layers that compose the skin are the dermis and a) superficial fascia b) subcutaneous c) epidermis d) hypodermis The structure that lies deep to the dermis and forms a connection between the skin and the underlying structures of the body is the a) hypodermis b) hyperdermis c) cleavage line d) dermal papillae If 90% of epidermal cell types are keratinocytes, 5% melanocytes what cells belong to the remaining 5%? a) Keratinocytes, epidermal dendritic, tactile b) Epidermal dendritic cell (langerhams cells) and tactile (merkel cells) c) Melanocytes, tactile, langerhams cells d) Dendritic, epidermal, nontactile The epidermis is composed of several types of epithelial cells. One type, called keratinocytes, become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called a) melanin b) keratin c) stratum lucidum d) eleidin The most superficial layer is? • Stratum corneum What layers are responsible for dead cells and cells filled with keratin precursor (eledin)? a) Stratum corneum and stratum granulosum b) Stratum cornum and stratum lucidum c) Stratum spinosum and stratum basale d) Stratum lucidum and stratum granulusm What layers are responsible for mitosis and cells rich in RNA? a) Stratum corenum and stratum lucidum b) Stratum spinosum and stratum granulosm c) Stratum spinosum and stratum basale d) Stratum lucidum and stratum granulusm The dermis is composed of two layers, a thin papillary layer and a thick _____ layer. a) reticular b) epidermal c) muscle d) connective tissue Each hair follicle has a small bundle of involuntary muscles attached to it called the a) smooth muscle layer b) microvilli c) arrector pilli muscle d) dermal papillae A deep wound is felt by which sensory receptors within the debris? a) Pacinan in deep hypodermis (due to deep pressure) b) Pacinan in upper hypodermis (due to deep pressure) c) Meissner in deep epidermis (due to low pressure) d) Meissner in upper epidermis (due to low pressure) The first step in the production of vitamin D in the body a) occurs when the body is exposed to UV light b) is the transportation of cholecalciferol to the liver and kidneys c) occurs with the conversion of vitamin D into an active form d) occurs when the melanin synthesizes vitamin D which of the following plays an important role in thermoregulation? a) Merkel cell b) Sebaceous gland c) Sweat gland d) Nail e) Fingerprint Skeletal tissues All of the following are functions of the bone, except a) Support b) Protection c) Movement d) Sensation should be mineral storage e) Hematopoiesis Which of the following is not a type of bone? a) flat b) irregular c) short d) long e) regular The main shaft-like portion of a long bone is the a) epiphysis b) articular cartilage c) periosteum d) diaphysis The dense, white fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces is the a) epiphysis b) articular cartilage c) periosteum d) diaphysis This is within the diaphysis of long bone containing yellow marrow a) Epiphyseal plate b) Articular cartilage c) Diaphysis d) Epiphysis The primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate is to: a) mend fractures b) enlarge the epiphysis c) provide bone strength d) lengthen long bones The extracellular components of bone matrix are a) soft and calcified b) soft and decalcified c) hard and calcified d) hard and decalcified The layers of bone material that build up to form cylindrical units of bone tissue are: a) osteons b) lamellae c) lacunae d) canaliculi Compact bone contains many cylinder-shaped structural units called a) lamellae b) lacunae c) canaliculi d) osteons These are spaces filled with fluid and bone cells located between lamellae a) canaliculi b) transverse canal c) lacunae d) osteons The Harvesian system within compact bones functional unit involves: a) connected by transverse canals b) does not surround central canals c) lacunae contain osteoclasts d) contains only one waterway Spongy bone is characterized by a) open space partially filled by an assemblage of needle-like structures b) a dense and solid appearance c) a soft and flexible gel-life substance d) a dense and compact substance For bone recycling these types of cells are needed_______ for bone formation these types of cells are needed_______ resulting in ______ a) osteocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts b) osteoblasts, osteocytes, ostemablast c) osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts d) osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes what compound is stored in high quantities in the bone, and during bone formation what occurs? a) Phosphorus; osteoblasts remove phosphorus from blood and low circulating levels of phosphorus b) Phosphorus: osteoclasts remove phosphorus from blood and low circulating levels of phosphorus c) Calcium: osteoblasts remove calcium from blood and low circulating level of calcium d) Calcium: osteoblasts remove calcium from blood and high circulating level of calcium Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? a) parathyroid and adrenaline b) parathyroid and calcitonin c) calcitonin and adrenaline d) calcitonin and aldosterone The importance of PTH and Calcitonin include all but: a) stimulates the release for high or low blood Ca+ levels b) osteoclasts increase renal absorption of calcium from urine c) calcitonin releases osteoclasts activity d) PTH stimulates vitamin D Most bones of the body are formed from cartilage models in a process called a) intramembranous ossification b) osteogenesis c) histogenesis d) endochondral ossification which definition is best defined: a) intramembranous ossification involves stems cells differentiate into osteoblasts b) bones rarely begin as cartilages c) calcium and phosphorus are deposited to harden the bone matrix d) elastin fibres are embedded in ground start bone matrix in intramembranous ossification Bone density can be increased by: a) aging b) osteoporosis c) weight-bearing exercises d) pregnancy with multiplets what are the two types of growth cartilage? a) Interstitial and intrastatual growth b) Interstitial and appositional growth c) Ossification and exogenous growth d) None of the above Muscles, Joints and Bones From the deepest layer of skeletal to the outermost layer of skeletal muscles what is the order? a) Endomysium, Perimysium, Epimysium b) Perimysium, Endomysium, Epimysium c) Endomysium, Epimysium, Perimysium d) Perimysium, Epimysium, Endomysium Attachment that does move is Origin True or false Attachment that does move is Insertion True or false Agonists are muscles that: a) Facilitate prime movers b) Oppose prime movers c) Stabilize joints d) Directly perform movements Antagonists are muscles that: a) Faciltate prime movers b) Oppose prime movers c) Stabilize joints d) Directly perform movements A prime mover is a muscle that directly performs a specific movement True or false A lever system involves: a) Fulcrum, load, pull and stretcher b) Fulcrum, weight, pull and extensor c) Fulcrum, load, pull and rod d) Fulcrum, load, pull and resistance Articulation is the contact between muscles True or false A highly moveable bone will include what type of joints? a) Diathroses, Burseae, Biaxial joint b) Diathroses, Bursae, Multiaxial joint c) Synarthroses, Bursea, Biaxial joint d) Synarthroses, Bursea, Multiaxial joint What are the 3 types of synathroses joints commonly found in the body a) Sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses b) Sutures, arthroses and gomphoses c) Syntdesmoses, gosphoses and synatric d) Synatric, sutures and syndersmoses What are the 2 types of amphiarthroses (cartilaginous joints) commonly found in the body: a) Sutures and synchondroses b) Gomphoses and symphysis c) Synchondroses and symphysis d) None of the above Match each terms __C__ hinge joint A) bone articulates with ring or notch of another bone __D_ ball and socket joint b) fits into elliptical socket ___A__ pivot joints *probs c) allows only flexion/extension eg elbow __E_ saddle joints d) ball-shaped head fits into one concave depression __B_ condyloid joints e) ends of bones resemble miniature saddles eg thumbs ___F_gliding joints f) flat limited articulating surfaces allows limited gliding movements Extrinsic foot muscles will: a) Located within the foot b) Allow for flexion and extension c) Pull on tendons that insert on bones in the ankle and foot d) Allow for abduction and adduction Turning the sole of the foot inward is called: a) rotation b) inversion c) flexion d) depression Turning the sole of the foot outward is called a) rotation b) flexion c) eversion d) depression Pivoting a bone on its own axis is called a) rotation b) circumduction c) plantar flexion d) extension Turning the hand palms up towards the ceiling is called a) plantar flexion b) supination c) pronation d) flexion Turning the hand palms down towards the floor is called A) flexion B) extension C) pronation D) supination _____occurs when a part of the body is extended beyond the anatomical position so that the joint angle is greater than 180 degrees a) abduction b) flexion c) adduction d) hyperextension Mrs. Smith has poison ivy on her shoulder, the poor thing. She reaches her right hand over to her left shoulder to "scratch that itch". Which movement is occurring at her ELBOW joint? a) Extension b) Circumduction c) Flexion d) Supination Because you are decreasing the angle Muscles and Joints and bones Part 2 All of the following are functions of the axial skeleton, except for: a) Provides support and protection for brain, spinal cord and organs of vertebral body b) Surface of attachment of muscles c) Stabilizes portion of the appendicular skeleton d) Provides a hard cushion on the ribs e) None of the above The axial skeleton is composed of: a) 80 bones, head, neck and torso b) 80 bones, head, neck and spinal cord c) 126 bones, head, neck and torso d) 126 bones, head, neck and spinal cord Cranial and facial bones information + understand diagram online Name of bone Location Function Ethmoid bone Found at center of face at floor of cranium Part of nasal cavity supports structure of nasal cavity Frontal Forehead region anterior roof of skull Occipital Forms back of skull Enables movement of head and also Where spinal cord passes Parietal Found at back roof of skull Mechanical protection Temporal Sides of skull behind parietal bone Parts of brain in temporal area which protects brain Sphenoid Found at base of cranium Articulates with all frontal, occipital and parietal bones Facial bones Location Functions Hyoid bone Found in neck and below the tongue Serves as attachment for tongue muscles and some neck muscles Lacrimal Behind the nose Has foramino for naso-lacrimal duct Mandible Lower jaw (tough most and largest) Bone lower teeth are attached, it causes lower jaw to move and helps in chewing Articulates with temporal bone Maxilla Upper jaw Where lower teeth is attached drains fluid into nasal cavity Palatine Found at back roof of the mouth Form nasal cavity and roof of mouth Nasal conchae Present on sides of nasal cavity Form nasal cavity Zygomatic Cheek bone Articulates with frontal bone, maxilla and temporal bones Vomer bone Forms part of nasal spectrum and found in base of nasal cavity Separates nasal cavity Which cranial bone is shaped like a bat and serves as the keystone in the architecture of the cranium? a) Ethmoid b) Parietal c) Sphenoid d) Temporal What feature of the infant skull allows for rapid brain growth without causing damaging increases in intracranial pressure? a) Sinuses b) Conchae c) Fontanels “soft spots” d) Sutures The hyoid bone does the following, except: a) Does not articulate with any other bone b) Between the larynx and mandible c) Broken hyoid is a sign of strangulation d) W shaped bone The first cervical vertebra is the: a) axis b) primary vertebra c) atlas d) pedicle The atlas allows for ______ while the axis allows for _______ a) nodding of the head and shaking of the head b) shaking of the head and nodding of the head c) allows head to move side to side and up and down d) allows head to stay still and move more The sacrum and coccyx is part of the _______ skeleton • axis How many regions are in the vertebral column? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 How many cervical vertebrae are there? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 How many thoracic vertebrae are there? A) 6 B) 10 C) 12 D) 15 Vertebral bodies are connected by: a) the anterior longitudinal ligament b) the posterior longitudinal ligament c) the ligamentum flavum d) both a and b The skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebrae is the: a) occipital b) sphenoid c) frontal d) ethmoid The sternum has three distinctive parts what are they: a) manubrium, chest and ribs b) manubrium, body and exphoid process c) manubrium, body and xiphoid process d) None of the above Where do your true ribs begin and attachment? a) C11-C12 attach to sternum b) C1-C7 attach to sternum c) T11-T12 attach to sternum d) T11-T12 do not attach to sternum at all Where do your floating ribs begin and attachment? a) C11-C12 attach to sternum b) C11-C12 do not attach to sternum at all c) T11-T12 attach to sternum d) T11-T12 do not attach to sternum at all Where do your false ribs begin and attachment? a) C11-C12 attach to sternum b) T8-T12 do not attach directly to sternum c) T11-T12 do not attach directly to sternum d) None of the above Ribs articulate with: a) Body and transverse body b) Body and thoracic vertebra c) Transverse body and pelvic girdle d) None of the above What are the layers that make up the abdominal wall (in order)? A) Transverse, rectus, internal and lateral B) Transverse, rectus, external lateral C) Rectus, external, internal, transverse D) None of the above What is the role of pubic symphysis during childbirth? • The pubis softens during delivery • Expansion of pelvic outlet • Newborn head passes out through birth canal Muscles, Joints and bones Part 3 The appendicular skeleton is composed of: a) 80 bones, head, neck and torso b) 126 bones, head, neck and spinal cord c) 126 bones, upper and lower extremities d) 80 bones, upper and lower extremities In the following what are the differences between upper limbs and lower limbs? a) 7 carpals in upper 7 tarsals in lower b) 8 carpals in upper 7 tarsals in lower c) 6 carpals in upper and 8 tarsals in lower d) 8 carpals in upper and 8 tarsals in lower Clavicle articulates with? • Medial to sternum • Lateral to scapula The arm socket is the: a) coronoid fossa b) olecranon fossa c) coracoid process d) glenoid cavity Shoulder girdle muscles are located: a) medial and lateral b) anterior and posterior c) inferior and superior d) none of the above If the humerus articulates distally with the radius and ulna what will the radius articulate distally? a) Distally with fibrocartilaginous disks b) Distally with the radioulnar joint c) Distally with the ulna d) Distally with the carpal bones and ulna If the radius articulates distally with the ulna then what will the ulna articulate distally with? a) Distally with raidioulnar joint b) Distally with ulna c) Distally with carpal bones and ulna d) Distally with fibrocartilaginous disks How many bones make up the wrist and ankle? a) 5 bones wrist and 7 bones ankle b) 7 bones wrist and 7 bones ankle c) 8 bones wrist and 7 bones ankle d) 6 bones wrist and 8 bones ankle How many metatarsals and phalanges make up the hand and foot? a) 15 metatarsals and 14 phalanges b) 5 metatarsals and 14 phalanges c) 6 metatarsals and 12 phalanges d) None of the above What is the location of the forearm? • Proximal to elbow and attached to ulna and radius Why are the lower limb bones larger and stronger than the upper limb bones? • Leg bones support our weight The pelvic girdle is composed of two bones what are they? a) Scapula and clavicle b) Sacrum and coxal c) Thoracic and lumbar d) None of the above Coxal bones contains three bones what are they? • Ilium- large and up • Ischium- strong and low • Pubis- anterior The pectoral includes all, except: a) Includes scapula b) Attaches the lower extremity to the trunk c) Includes clavicle d) Does not include a, b, and c What are the pelvic differences between men and women? • Men narrow pubic arch women wider pubic arch The femur (largest bone in body) articulates with: a) Laterally with patella b) Medially with radius c) Distally with fibula d) Proximally with the acetabulum of the coxal bone The patella: a) Articulates with tibia b) Attaches to femur c) Contains synovial fluid making it a synthroses joint d) Largest sesamoid bone How do the tibia and fibula differ? a) The tibia and fibula support weight b) The tibia and fibula stabilize the ankle joint c) The tibia bears body weight and fibula stabilizes ankle joint d) The tibia stabilizes ankle joint and fibula bears body weight Tom, Dick and Harry break their legs at the same soccer tournament. Tom breaks his femur, Dick breaks his fibula and Harry breaks his tibia. Who is able to put walk without support the soonest? a) Tom b) Dick c) Harry d) Both Dick and Harry Intrinsic foot muscles will: a) Located within the foot b) Allow for abduction and adduction c) Flexion and extension d) All of the above Muscle contraction Which statement is the most correct? a) Skeletal muscle is striated and involuntary b) Smooth muscle is striated and involuntary c) Cardiac muscle is striated and involuntary d) Cranial muscle is striated and involuntary Which type of muscle is found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body? a) Skeletal muscle b) Smooth muscle c) Cardiac muscle d) Biceps brachii muscle e) Connective muscle Which muscles contain thick and thin filaments? a) Smooth muscles b) Skeletal muscles c) Cardiac muscles d) Connective muscles The skeletal muscle fiber characteristic of excitability directly results in these cells being capable of: a) responding to nerve signals b) shortening c) returning to resting length after contracting d) producing heat The skeletal muscle fiber characteristic of contractibility directly results in what? a) Producing heat b) Shortening c) Returning to resting length after contracting d) Movement The skeletal muscle fiber characteristic of extensibility directly results in what? a) Movement b) Producing heat c) Returning to resting length after contracting d) None of the above What is the importance of muscles to normal life? a) Producing heat b) Movement c) Maintenance of body posture d) All of the above The contractile unit of the microfibril is the: a) sarcomere b) triad c) sarcolemma d) cross-bridge A protein that is NOT part of myofilaments is ________. a) actin b) tropoymyosin c) myoglobin d) troponin what is the difference between myosin and actin? • Myosin contains thick filaments • Actin contains thin filaments Myosin heads are also called: a) cross-bridges b) motor endplates c) synapse d) motor neurons Plasma membrane of muscles fibers are: a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum b) Sarcolemma c) Triad d) T-tubules Series of sacs containing calcium are named: a) Sarcoma reticulars b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum c) Sarcolemma d) Sarolemnias This allows electrical impulses to travel along sarcolemma down into the cell a) Sarcolemma b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum c) Triad d) T-tubules The region of a muscle fiber where a motor neuron connects to the muscle fiber is called the: a) synaptic vesicle b) motor unit c) motor endplate d) H band Calcium binds to ______ on actin a) Tropomysin b) Troponin c) Myosin d) None of the above During muscle contraction tropomyosin does which of the following? a) Tropomyosin exposes active site for myosin binding b) Tropomyosin exposes active site for actin binding c) Tropomyosin blocks active site for myosin binding d) Tropomyosin blocks active site for actin binding The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of a) DNA b) RNA c) ADP d) ATP During muscle relaxation: a) Active sites on actin are exposed b) Myosin heads bind to active sites c) Myosin heads bend and pull to center of sarcomere d) Myofibril shortens e) All of the above A motor neuron, plus the muscle fibers to which it attaches, constitutes a functional unit called a _____. a) motor unit b) myograph c) syncytium d) treppe what is the purpose of motor unit? • To control muscle movement During which isotonic concentration do muscles shorten and muscle lengthens in that order? a) Isometric and isomuscular b) Eccentric and concentric c) Concentric and eccentric d) Isometric and eccentric Nervous system cells What is the functions of the nervous system? a) Detecting stimuli b) Processing information c) Sending response to muscles or glands d) All of the above After touching a hot stove nerve impulses go in the order of: a) Afferent (sensory), interneurons, efferent (motor) b) Interneurons, afferent, motor c) Sensory, interneurons and afferent d) Motor, interneurons, sensory The central nervous system consists of? • Brain and spinal cord The peripheral nervous system consists of? • Cranial nerves and spinal nerves The somatic nervous system is voluntary and carries information to the a) brain b) visceral effectors c) skeletal muscles d) autonomic effectors The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into which divisions? a) parasympathetic and sympathetic b) parasympathetic and autonomic c) sympathetic and autonomic d) visceral sensory and somatic sensory Fight or flight and involuntary response belongs to: a) autonomic and parasympathetic b) sympathetic and autonomic c) parasympathetic and somatic d) somatic and sympathetic “rest and digest” response belongs to: a) autonomic and parasympathetic b) sympathetic and autonomic c) somatic and sympathetic d) parasympathetic and somatic In a contralateral reflex arc: a) The receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body b) The receptors and effectors are on the opposite side of the body c) The receptors and effectors are on the same segment of the spinal cord d) The receptors and effectors are on the different segment of the spinal cord In ipsilateral reflex arc: a) The receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body b) The receptors and effectors are on the opposite side of the body c) The receptors and effectors are on the same segment of the spinal cord d) The receptors and effectors are on the different segment of the spinal cord In segmental reflex arc: a) The receptors and effectors are on the same side of the body b) The receptors and effectors are on the opposite side of the body c) The receptors and effectors are on the same segment of the spinal cord d) The receptors and effectors are on the different segment of the spinal cord Excitable cells that conduct the impulses are called a) glia cells b) neurons c) astrocytes d) Schwann cells An example of a two neuron reflex arc is all, except: a) Heart b) Skeletal c) Lung d) Chemical digestion This supports and allows neurons to function? • Neuroglia Which of the cells are not a type of neuroglia found in the CNS? a) Astrocytes b) Microglia c) Oligodendrocytes d) Schwann cells Astrocytes: a) Produce the myelin sheath b) Carry on phagocytosis to engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris c) Produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d) Transfer nutrients from the blood to the neurons Microglia: a) Produce the myelin sheath b) Carry on phagocytosis to engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris c) Produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d) Transfer nutrients from the blood to the neurons Ependymal cells: a) Produce the myelin sheath b) Carry on phagocytosis to engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris c) Produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d) Transfer nutrients from the blood to the neurons Oligodendrocytes: a) Produce the myelin sheath b) Carry on phagocytosis to engulf and destroy microorganisms and cellular debris c) Produce and circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) d) Transfer nutrients from the blood to the neurons Which of these glia cells are located in the peripheral nervous system? a) astrocytes b) ependymal cells c) oligodendrocytes d) Schwann cells Cell bodies in the PNS generally occur in clusters called: a) Nuclei b) Ganglia c) Collaterals d) Neuroglia Parkinson’s disease is associated with a decreased secretion of what neurotransmitter? a) Acetylcholine b) Dopamine c) Epinephrine d) Serotonin Myelinated sheaths vs unmyelinated sheaths differ due to: a) Myelin allow for insulation and unmyelinated allows for conductivity b) Myelin are grey colored and unmyelinated are white colored c) Myelin have several Schwann cells while unmyelinated have double the Schwann cells d) Myelin allow for conductivity and unmyelinated hold nerves together Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath which allow faster conduction True or false White matter has its distinctive color due to: a) Myelination of axons b) Collection of cell bodies in CNS c) Collection of cell bodies in PNS d) Microtubules in cytoskeleton The dendrites of a neuron: a) Main receiving region of a neuron b) Secrete transmitters c) Conduct impulses toward another neuron d) Do not carry potentials, only axons _____ send signals away from neurons, whereas______ receive signals from other neurons a) Dendrites, axons b) Axons, synapses c) Axons, dendrites d) Synapse, dendrites Synapse usually: a) Provides ATP b) Conducts nerve impulses away from cell body c) Communicate with other neurons/effecter to release neurotransmitters d) Secrete neurotransmitters The summation zone (axon hillock) of a nerve is: a) Receives input from other neurons & sensory receptors b) combines nerve inputs and may trigger impulse c) Transmission of nerve impulse down the axon away from the cell body d) Releases neurotransmitter to communicate with an effector cell The input zone of a nerve is: a) Receives input from other neurons & sensory receptors b) combines nerve inputs and may trigger impulse c) Transmission of nerve impulse down the axon away from the cell body d) Releases neurotransmitter to communicate with an effector cell The conduction zone of a nerve is: a) Receives input from other neurons & sensory receptors b) combines nerve inputs and may trigger impulse c) Transmission of nerve impulse down the axon away from the cell body d) Releases neurotransmitter to communicate with an effector cell The output zone of a nerve is: a) Receives input from other neurons & sensory receptors b) combines nerve inputs and may trigger impulse c) Transmission of nerve impulse down the axon away from the cell body d) Releases neurotransmitter to communicate with an effector cell Which of the following types of neurons has a single process extending from the cell body, which later divides a short distance away into central and peripheral processes? a) Pseudo unipolar b) Bipolar c) Multipolar d) None The most common type of neurons are _______ which have several dendrites and one axon extending from the cell body a) Interneurons b) Afferent neurons c) Multipolar neurons d) Pseudo-unipolar Nerves are protected through a cloak of connective tissue called: a) Neurilemma b) Endoneurium c) Perineurium d) Epineurium Choose the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from innermost to outermost: a) Endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium b) Epineurium, perineurium and endoneurium c) Endoneurium, epineurium and perineurium d) None of the above Nervous System signaling The Resting membrane potential is measured in mV and is ranged from: a) -90mv to +20mv b) -70mv to -90mv c) +70mv to -90mv d) None of the above During the resting potential of a neuron, which of the following is least likely to be found in large quantities inside the neuron? a) Charged anions b) Negative charged cations c) K+ d) Na+ The role of Na+/K+ pump in the nervous system is to: a) Maintain proper ionic concentration gradients across the neuron membrane b) Generate nerve impulse when the neuron is stimulated c) Transmit nerve impulse across the synaptic cleft between neurons d) Provide a source of Na+ and K+ by splitting NaCl and NaK An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) a) ionic channel b) sodium-potassium channel c) stimulus-gated channel d) local potential Graded local potentials: a) Occur when ion movement causes a minor change in the resting membrane potential. b) usually propagate down the length of an axon. c) are most often observed in axons. d) are usually caused by ion movement through voltage gated channels Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called a) depolarization b) repolarization c) hypopolarization d) hyperpolarization Movement of the membrane potential towards the zero is called: a) repolarization b) hypopolarization c) depolarization d) hyperpolarization Potassium diffuses out of the cell and PD returns to normal is called: a) depolarization b) repolarization c) hyperpolarization d) hypopolarization The membrane potential of a neuron that is conducting an impulse is known as? • Action potential Correct the sequence of events that follow the mechanism of action potential 1. Start of action potential 2. Adequate stimulus triggers the opening of stimulus-gated Na+ channels 3. Caused by K+ moving out of the cell through voltage gated channels 4. Caused by Na+/K+ pumps 5. Caused by Na+ moving into the cell through voltage gated channels Local depolarization _2__ Threshold __1__ Depolarization __5__ Repolarization __3__ Hyperpolarization ____ Restoration of resting membrane potential __4__ The threshold of a neuron is the a) Total amount of a neurotransmitter it takes to cause an AP b) Voltage that triggers activation of voltage gated channels c) Time between binding of neurotransmitter and firing of an AP d) Voltage across the resting cell membrane An absolute refractory is _________? a) A brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an AP b) The period during which potassium and sodium ions are completely stable c) The short time the myelin sheath provides insulation from another impulse d) Is a reverse impulse that resets the sodium and potassium balance The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is the: a) refractory period b) resting membrane potential c) action potential d) repolarization period Which is false about myelinated fibers? a) They are smaller than unmyelinated fibers b) They conduct action potentials at a faster speed than unmyelinated fibers c) The myelin is produced by ependymal cells in the CNS d) Action potentials are conducted only at nodes of Ranvier through saltatory conduction The action potential seems to "leap" from node to node along a myelinated fiber and is a: a) refractory conduction b) sensory conduction c) action potential d) salutatory conduction There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. a) mechanical b) sensory c) chemical d) sonic This is found in both chemical and electrical synapses. a) Gap junction: pores to allow flow of substances directly from one cell to another b) Vesicles: packets containing neurotransmitters c) Postsynaptic cell: receives signals from presynaptic cell d) Tight junction: prevents substances from flowing between cells e) Receptors: bind to neurotransmitter to cause an effect on second neuron or effector cell The IPSP and EPSP differ in what ways? a) IPSP allows for AP in prepsynpatic cell EPSP allows for AP in postsynaptic b) IPSP allows for AP in postsynaptic cell EPSP allows for AP in presynaptic c) IPSP lowers for AP in postsynaptic cell ESPS allows for AP in postsynaptic d) IPSP lowers for AP in presynaptic cell ESPS allows for AP in presynaptic In spatial summation: a) an action potential is produced when several knobs are activated simultaneously on different locations of the postsynaptic membrane b) An action potential is produced when synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron very quickly c) Only inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) can occur d) Only excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) In Temporal summation: a) an action potential is produced when several knobs are activated simultaneously on different locations of the postsynaptic membrane b) An action potential is produced when synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron very quickly c) Only inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) can occur d) Only excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) In summation of inhibitory and excitatory: a) an action potential is produced when several knobs are activated simultaneously on different locations of the postsynaptic membrane b) An action potential is produced when synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron very quickly c) EPSP is more than IPSP d) IPSP is more than EPSP At a synapse, the neuron that receives the signal is called the: a) Presynaptic b) Axodendritic c) Axodenritic d) Postsynaptic At a synapse, this neuron branches to another neuron is called: a) Axodendritic b) Postsynaptic c) Presynaptic d) Axoaxonic A single motor neuron in the CNS, which receives a number of EPSPs and IPSP simultaneously, illustrates which pathway? a) Convergent pathway b) Divergent pathway c) Parallel pathway d) Lateral pathway Which is not a mechanism to terminate neurotransmitter action? a) Neurotransmitter enters the post-synaptic cell once it binds to the receptor b) Neurotransmitter is transported back into the synaptic knob (reuptake) c) Neurotransmitter is metabolized by enzymes into inactive compounds d) Neurotransmitter diffuses away from the synaptic cleft and is taken up by nearby glia Small molecule neurotransmitters include all, except: a) Acetylcholine b) Amines c) Neuropeptides d) Amino acids