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NURS 617 Pharmacotherapeutics Final Exam 2026/2027 | Actual Exam
Q&A with Verified Answers | Grade A Nursing Study Guide
1. A client with a history of impaired kidney function is started on a new medication. The
nurse understands this client is at increased risk for which type of adverse drug
reaction?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Idiosyncratic reaction
C. Cumulative reaction
D. Mutagenic reaction
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Cumulative reaction
Rationale: Cumulative adverse drug reactions occur when a drug accumulates in the
body due to impaired excretion, often from renal or hepatic insufficiency. This leads to
higher-than-intended drug levels and toxicity.
2. When considering antihypertensive monotherapy, the nurse understands that
patients of African ancestry typically have a reduced blood pressure response to several
drug classes. Which class is the exception to this general trend?
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A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs (e.g., amlodipine) are effective as monotherapy across
diverse populations and do not show the same reduced efficacy in patients of African
ancestry as ACE inhibitors or beta-blockers often do.
3. The nurse is reviewing a client's medication list. The drug amlodipine is correctly
classified as which type of calcium channel blocker?
A. Nondihydropyridine
B. Dihydropyridine
C. Cardiac-selective
D. Vasoselective
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Dihydropyridine
Rationale: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. This class primarily
causes peripheral vasodilation and is commonly used for hypertension and angina.
4. A client is prescribed verapamil for atrial fibrillation. The nurse recognizes this drug
belongs to which class of calcium channel blocker?
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A. Dihydropyridine
B. Nondihydropyridine
C. Loop-active
D. Thiazide-like
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nondihydropyridine
Rationale: Verapamil is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. This class has
greater effects on cardiac conduction and contractility, making it useful for
dysrhythmias.
5. The nurse is caring for a client in her third trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing
an asthma exacerbation. Which medication, commonly used for asthma, requires
cautious use at this stage of pregnancy?
A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
B. Montelukast (Singulair)
C. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
D. Terbutaline (Brethine)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Terbutaline (Brethine)
Rationale: Terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can cause maternal tachycardia,
hyperglycemia, and pulmonary edema. While sometimes used for preterm labor
, 4|Page
(tocolysis), it is used with extreme caution in the third trimester for asthma due to these
risks.
6. The nurse is educating a client about a new prescription for benzonatate. Which
statement accurately describes this antitussive's mechanism of action?
A. "It depresses the cough center in the medulla."
B. "It is a local anesthetic that numbs stretch receptors in the airways."
C. "It dries respiratory secretions through an anticholinergic effect."
D. "It reduces inflammation in the bronchial tree."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "It is a local anesthetic that numbs stretch receptors in the
airways."
Rationale: Benzonatate is a non-opioid antitussive that works by anesthetizing the
stretch receptors in the lungs and pleura, reducing the cough reflex at its source.
7. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks about the advantages of
her newly prescribed proton-pump inhibitor (PPI). Which statements should the nurse
include in the teaching? (Select All That Apply).
A. They provide immediate, permanent healing of the esophagus.
B. They are useful in the treatment of GERD.
C. They have a rapid onset of action.
NURS 617 Pharmacotherapeutics Final Exam 2026/2027 | Actual Exam
Q&A with Verified Answers | Grade A Nursing Study Guide
1. A client with a history of impaired kidney function is started on a new medication. The
nurse understands this client is at increased risk for which type of adverse drug
reaction?
A. Allergic reaction
B. Idiosyncratic reaction
C. Cumulative reaction
D. Mutagenic reaction
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Cumulative reaction
Rationale: Cumulative adverse drug reactions occur when a drug accumulates in the
body due to impaired excretion, often from renal or hepatic insufficiency. This leads to
higher-than-intended drug levels and toxicity.
2. When considering antihypertensive monotherapy, the nurse understands that
patients of African ancestry typically have a reduced blood pressure response to several
drug classes. Which class is the exception to this general trend?
,2|Page
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Thiazide diuretics
D. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Rationale: Dihydropyridine CCBs (e.g., amlodipine) are effective as monotherapy across
diverse populations and do not show the same reduced efficacy in patients of African
ancestry as ACE inhibitors or beta-blockers often do.
3. The nurse is reviewing a client's medication list. The drug amlodipine is correctly
classified as which type of calcium channel blocker?
A. Nondihydropyridine
B. Dihydropyridine
C. Cardiac-selective
D. Vasoselective
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Dihydropyridine
Rationale: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. This class primarily
causes peripheral vasodilation and is commonly used for hypertension and angina.
4. A client is prescribed verapamil for atrial fibrillation. The nurse recognizes this drug
belongs to which class of calcium channel blocker?
,3|Page
A. Dihydropyridine
B. Nondihydropyridine
C. Loop-active
D. Thiazide-like
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nondihydropyridine
Rationale: Verapamil is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker. This class has
greater effects on cardiac conduction and contractility, making it useful for
dysrhythmias.
5. The nurse is caring for a client in her third trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing
an asthma exacerbation. Which medication, commonly used for asthma, requires
cautious use at this stage of pregnancy?
A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
B. Montelukast (Singulair)
C. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
D. Terbutaline (Brethine)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Terbutaline (Brethine)
Rationale: Terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can cause maternal tachycardia,
hyperglycemia, and pulmonary edema. While sometimes used for preterm labor
, 4|Page
(tocolysis), it is used with extreme caution in the third trimester for asthma due to these
risks.
6. The nurse is educating a client about a new prescription for benzonatate. Which
statement accurately describes this antitussive's mechanism of action?
A. "It depresses the cough center in the medulla."
B. "It is a local anesthetic that numbs stretch receptors in the airways."
C. "It dries respiratory secretions through an anticholinergic effect."
D. "It reduces inflammation in the bronchial tree."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "It is a local anesthetic that numbs stretch receptors in the
airways."
Rationale: Benzonatate is a non-opioid antitussive that works by anesthetizing the
stretch receptors in the lungs and pleura, reducing the cough reflex at its source.
7. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks about the advantages of
her newly prescribed proton-pump inhibitor (PPI). Which statements should the nurse
include in the teaching? (Select All That Apply).
A. They provide immediate, permanent healing of the esophagus.
B. They are useful in the treatment of GERD.
C. They have a rapid onset of action.
