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NCCQ UK THEORY PAST PAPER PRACTICE | 322 QUESTIONS | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

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NCCQ UK THEORY PAST PAPER PRACTICE | 322 QUESTIONS | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONSNCCQ UK THEORY PAST PAPER PRACTICE | 322 QUESTIONS | WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS

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NCCQ theory past exam questions

In ICD-10 5th Edition, what two terms are associated with the use of fifth characters when
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coding fractured bones, and of these what must be recorded if the type is not indicated? [3
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Marks] - ANS>>'Open' and 'closed'
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An injury not indicated as 'open' or 'closed' must be recorded using fifth character '0'
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In relation to the co-morbidities standard in ICD-10 5th Edition, why will acute conditions
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always be coded? - ANS>>Acute conditions will always affect the patient's episode of care
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Which one of the following options must an injury be described as to be classified to ICD-10
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5th Edition Chapter XIII Diseases of the musculoskeletal system and connective tissue?
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A. Acute, old or recurrent
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B. Acute, subacute or recurrent
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C. Chronic, old or recurrent - ANS>>C. Chronic, old or recurrent
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Codes in categories U00-U49 are reserved by the WHO for provisional assignment in what
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situations? [2 Marks] - ANS>>New diseases of uncertain aetiology or emergency use
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When is it permissible to assign ICD-10 5th Edition fourth character codes for 'multiple
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injuries' in Chapter XIX Injury, poisoning and certain other consequences of external
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causes? [3 Marks] - ANS>>Only where no detail is documented in the medical record
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about the individual sites or types of the injury
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Name the five columns of the 'neoplasm table' found in Volume 3 Alphabetical Index of
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ICD-10 5th Edition related to behaviour. [5 Marks] - ANS>>Malignant primary
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Malignant secondary ii



In situ
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Benign ii



Uncertain or unknown behaviour ii ii ii




In ICD-10 5th Edition, the dagger and asterisk system provides a dual classification of
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diagnostic statements; what does each symbol represent? [2 Marks] - ANS>>The dagger
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(†) represents the underlying generalised disease (also referred to as aetiology). The
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asterisk (*) represents the manifestation of that disease
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In ICD-10 5th Edition, anaemia must not be coded in what three neoplastic blood disorders
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as it is a natural symptom in these conditions? [3 Marks] - ANS>>Leukaemia, myeloma
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and myelodysplasia
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,In ICD-10 5th Edition, what are sequelae codes used to indicate? [2 Marks] - ANS>>They
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are used to indicate that a current condition or disease has been caused by a previously
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occurring disease or injury which has been treated and is no longer present
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What punctuation is used in both the ICD-10 5th Edition Tabular List and the Alphabetical
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Index to indicate there are fourth character subdivisions? - ANS>>Point-dash (.-)
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In OPCS-4, what does NOC stand for and in what chapter is it used? [2 Marks] -
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ANS>>NOC stands for Not Otherwise Classifiable and is used only in the subsidiary
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Chapter Y.
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Name the four Sections of the OPCS-4 Alphabetical Index. [4 Marks] -
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ANS>>(Alphabetical Index of) Interventions and Surgical Procedures
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(Alphabetical Index of Surgical) Eponyms ii ii ii ii ii



(Alphabetical Index of Surgical) Abbreviations ii ii ii ii ii



(Alphabetical Index of Common Surgical) Suffixes ii ii ii ii ii




When and how are codes from OPCS-4 Chapter S Skin used to enhance a code from
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another body system chapter? [3 Marks] - ANS>>The code from Chapter S must be
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assigned:
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• When it provides further information about the procedure that is not specified in the
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primary body system code.
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• In a secondary position, directly after the body system code it is enhancing
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Describe the OPCS-4 standard for coding excision and biopsy procedures. [4 Marks] -
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ANS>>When an excision and biopsy is performed on the same site during the same
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theatre visit, only assign a code(s) for the excision, as a biopsy is an integral part of the
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excision
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In which position must codes from OPCS-4 chapters Y Subsidiary Classification of
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Methods of Operation and Z Subsidiary Classification of Sites of Operation be
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sequenced? - ANS>>They must only ever be coded in a secondary position
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In OPCS-4, how should a 'failed intubation' at an upper gastrointestinal tract endoscopy be
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reflected in the coded clinical record? [2 Marks] - ANS>>The procedure must not be coded
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unless the point of abandonment is beyond the mouth
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What is the main axis of classification within OPCS-4 and what are the four levels of
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complexity associated with it? [5 Marks] - ANS>>The main axis of the classification is body
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system. The four levels of complexity are major, intermediate, minor and non-operative
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To maintain the structure of the OPCS-4 classification, .8 and .9 codes are available in both
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principal and extended categories, but from which one of these is it acceptable to assign .8
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and .9 codes? - ANS>>Principal categories
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, Describe the standard when coding multiple deliveries (e.g. twins, triplets) in OPCS-4
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Chapter R Female Genital Tract Associated with Pregnancy, Childbirth and Puerperium.
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[3 Marks] - ANS>>Each different type of delivery must be recorded with the most serious
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being sequenced first. Where all methods of delivery are identical, only one code is
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required
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Where an unintentional action, such as perforation of an organ, occurs during a procedure,
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how should this be reflected in the coded clinical record? The answer should reflect both
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ICD-10 5th Edition and OPCS-4. [3 Marks] - ANS>>This unintentional action must not be
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recorded using OPCS-4 codes. Any surgical procedures performed to correct the
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unintentional action must be recorded using the appropriate OPCS-4 code(s). Any
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associated diagnosis resulting from the unintentional action, e.g. accidental perforation of
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organ, will be coded using the appropriate ICD-10 code(s)
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In ICD-10 5th Edition, what is the primary diagnosis definition? [7 Marks] - ANS>>The first
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diagnosis field(s) of the coded clinical record (the primary diagnosis) will contain the main
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condition treated or investigated during the relevant episode of healthcare. Where a
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definitive diagnosis has not been made by the responsible clinician the main symptom,
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abnormal findings, or problem should be recorded in the first diagnosis field of the coded
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clinical record
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ICD: Describe the rule in relation to code structure when a three character category is not
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subdivided into four character subdivisions, and why this is used. [5 Marks] - ANS>>The 'X'
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filler must be assigned in the fourth character field so the codes are of a standard length for
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data processing and validation. Where a three character code requires assignment of both
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the 'X' filler and a fifth character subdivision, the 'X' filler must continue to be recorded in the
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fourth field before the fifth character
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ICD: Describe the purpose of 'Use' notes in Volume 1 Tabular List and when the
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convention must be applied. [3 Marks] - ANS>>The 'use' note is a specific instruction to
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use an additional code in order to describe a condition more completely. The 'use' note is
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never optional and must always be adhered to where the information is available in the
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medical record.
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OPCS: Describe the uses of the 'Note' instruction. [5 Marks] - ANS>>• To advise coders to
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include or omit additional or subsidiary codes.
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• To direct coders elsewhere in the classification to more appropriate categories.
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• To clarify the intended use of a particular chapter, category or code.
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• To provide specific instructions on the correct sequencing of codes when used together
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(paired codes)
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OPCS: Describe 'paired codes' and the convention associated with the 'paired codes note'.
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[5 Marks] - ANS>>Some interventions/procedures are frequently carried out together but
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are classified at separate codes or categories. Where this is the case, the categories
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concerned contain instructional notes to indicate the associated code and correct
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sequencing.
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