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NR 602 Final exam realistic questions and verified answers (2026 updated!!!!!!!).

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NR 602 Final exam realistic questions and verified answers (2026 updated!!!!!!!).

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NR 602 Final exam realistic questions and verified answers (2026
updated!!!!!!!).

What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous
cells of undetermined significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 co-
test in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal Pap smears? - ANSWER:
Colposcopy

A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following -
ANSWER: A general health history focusing on reproductive and sexual health
concerns (mentors, gynecologic, and pregnancy related) and psychosocial (Family
related, peer related, emotional, and physical as well as related to abuse, drug use
and alcohol use) concerns

Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the health history
and gynecologic considerations for an extern only inspection of the genitalia

A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification - ANSWER: CIN 1

A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should
have what as follow-up? - ANSWER: Routine screening

A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and
has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with HPV
testing today, when should she have the next cervical cancer screening - ANSWER:
Five years

A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to have a Pap
smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What should the nurse include in
the explanation of this procedure - ANSWER: The Pap smear can detect cancer of
the cervix

Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive
HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next - ANSWER: Repeat Pap and HPV
screen

Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to see if having
any future Pap test performed - ANSWER: Over 55 years of age

You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea and normal
secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of the progesterone challenge is to a
certain the presence of - ANSWER: Endogenous estrogen

A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months she did
experience menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On physical
examination, it is noted that she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. The

, nurse practitioner will consider progesterone challenge to determine the presence
of adequate - ANSWER: Endogenous estrogen

A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex
characteristics. The progesterone challenge is ordered. the purpose is to determine
the presence of - ANSWER: Endogenous estrogen

18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is a
normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out
what would necessitate further evaluation - ANSWER: Galactorrhea

Primary amenorrhea is best described as - ANSWER: Failure to menstrate by 13
years old

A nurse practitioner is participating in a woman's health fair. When educating the
woman about risk factors for breast cancer which of the following statements is
incorrect? - ANSWER: Fibrocystic breast disease

When educating women about breast cancer risk factors which statement is
incorrect - ANSWER: Fibrocystic breast disease

A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing invasive
breast cancer of - ANSWER: 8.0

Changes and hormonal regulation during menopause result in the gradual
cessation of menstruation. From which gland is Androstenedione secreted -
ANSWER: Adrenals

A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance rule
out high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion will require which procedure -
ANSWER: Colposcopy

A Pap smear results of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
require which procedure next - ANSWER: Follow-up Pap smear

A 25-year-old presents with a report of a very tender area just near her introitus
and to the left of her perineum. Very painful sex is how she knew something wasn't
right. She showered and when washing, she felt a P sized painful lump on the left
side of her bottom. She tells you she looked at it with the mirror and it was very
small but now it is the size of a ping-pong ball and getting worse. when you Inspect
her genitalia you are amazed at the size and appearance of the lump you know what
appears to be an abscess on the left medial side of the labia minora and there is
some edema extending into the perineum. Your diagnosis for this presentation is -
ANSWER: Bartholins cyst

You explain to this young woman what this "lump" is and let her know you will be
referring her to a gynecologist you consult with regularly. You explain to her the

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