NR 565 Week 1-4 Midterm Exam Actual Week 1-4
Midterm Exam Complete 1-100 Exam Questions
Proctored Via Examplify Chamberlain University
With Correct Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+ |
1. A patient is taking a drug that is a known CYP450 inducer. How will this most likely affect a co-
administered drug that is a substrate of the same enzyme?
A. The plasma levels of the substrate drug will increase.
B. The plasma levels of the substrate drug will decrease.
C. There will be no change in the drug's metabolism.
D. The half-life of the substrate drug will be prolonged.
2. Which phase of pharmacokinetics is most affected by a patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Absorption
3. According to the Beers Criteria, which class of medications should generally be avoided in the elderly
due to the high risk of falls and confusion?
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Proton Pump Inhibitors
D. Statins
,4. What is the primary legal difference between a Schedule II and a Schedule III controlled substance?
A. Schedule II drugs do not require a DEA number to prescribe.
B. Schedule III drugs have a higher potential for abuse.
C. Schedule III drugs cannot be called into a pharmacy.
D. Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled.
5. Which term describes the amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged
form?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of Distribution
C. Therapeutic Index
D. Bioavailability
6. A patient with liver cirrhosis is prescribed a prodrug. What is the most likely clinical outcome?
A. The drug may have a reduced therapeutic effect.
B. The drug will be more effective than usual.
C. There is no concern as prodrugs bypass the liver.
D. The drug will be excreted faster.
7. Which of the following describes 'pharmacodynamics'?
A. What the body does to the drug.
B. The genetic variation in drug response.
C. What the drug does to the body.
D. The study of drug cost-effectiveness.
8. What is the importance of the 'First Pass Effect'?
, A. It refers to the drug's first encounter with the kidneys.
B. It only applies to medications given intravenously.
C. It explains why oral doses are often much higher than IV doses.
D. It increases the amount of drug available for the brain.
9. Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for an adverse drug reaction (ADR) related to
protein binding?
A. A patient with hypoalbuminemia.
B. A patient with a high-protein diet.
C. A patient taking only one medication.
D. A young adult with normal renal function.
10. When an APRN has 'Full Practice Authority,' it means:
A. They can prescribe and treat without physician oversight as allowed by state law.
B. They must have a written collaborative agreement with a physician.
C. They are only allowed to prescribe Schedule IV and V drugs.
D. They must be supervised by a pharmacist.
11. A patient is prescribed a medication that is a known CYP450 inhibitor. If they are also taking a second
drug that is a substrate of the same enzyme, what is the primary concern?
A. The patient may experience toxicity from the substrate drug.
B. The substrate drug will be excreted faster by the kidneys.
C. The substrate drug will become less effective.
D. The substrate drug will be metabolized too quickly.
12. Which specific physiological change in elderly patients most significantly alters the distribution of
lipophilic (fat-soluble) drugs?
A. Increased total body water
Midterm Exam Complete 1-100 Exam Questions
Proctored Via Examplify Chamberlain University
With Correct Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+ |
1. A patient is taking a drug that is a known CYP450 inducer. How will this most likely affect a co-
administered drug that is a substrate of the same enzyme?
A. The plasma levels of the substrate drug will increase.
B. The plasma levels of the substrate drug will decrease.
C. There will be no change in the drug's metabolism.
D. The half-life of the substrate drug will be prolonged.
2. Which phase of pharmacokinetics is most affected by a patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Absorption
3. According to the Beers Criteria, which class of medications should generally be avoided in the elderly
due to the high risk of falls and confusion?
A. ACE Inhibitors
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Proton Pump Inhibitors
D. Statins
,4. What is the primary legal difference between a Schedule II and a Schedule III controlled substance?
A. Schedule II drugs do not require a DEA number to prescribe.
B. Schedule III drugs have a higher potential for abuse.
C. Schedule III drugs cannot be called into a pharmacy.
D. Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled.
5. Which term describes the amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation in an unchanged
form?
A. Clearance
B. Volume of Distribution
C. Therapeutic Index
D. Bioavailability
6. A patient with liver cirrhosis is prescribed a prodrug. What is the most likely clinical outcome?
A. The drug may have a reduced therapeutic effect.
B. The drug will be more effective than usual.
C. There is no concern as prodrugs bypass the liver.
D. The drug will be excreted faster.
7. Which of the following describes 'pharmacodynamics'?
A. What the body does to the drug.
B. The genetic variation in drug response.
C. What the drug does to the body.
D. The study of drug cost-effectiveness.
8. What is the importance of the 'First Pass Effect'?
, A. It refers to the drug's first encounter with the kidneys.
B. It only applies to medications given intravenously.
C. It explains why oral doses are often much higher than IV doses.
D. It increases the amount of drug available for the brain.
9. Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for an adverse drug reaction (ADR) related to
protein binding?
A. A patient with hypoalbuminemia.
B. A patient with a high-protein diet.
C. A patient taking only one medication.
D. A young adult with normal renal function.
10. When an APRN has 'Full Practice Authority,' it means:
A. They can prescribe and treat without physician oversight as allowed by state law.
B. They must have a written collaborative agreement with a physician.
C. They are only allowed to prescribe Schedule IV and V drugs.
D. They must be supervised by a pharmacist.
11. A patient is prescribed a medication that is a known CYP450 inhibitor. If they are also taking a second
drug that is a substrate of the same enzyme, what is the primary concern?
A. The patient may experience toxicity from the substrate drug.
B. The substrate drug will be excreted faster by the kidneys.
C. The substrate drug will become less effective.
D. The substrate drug will be metabolized too quickly.
12. Which specific physiological change in elderly patients most significantly alters the distribution of
lipophilic (fat-soluble) drugs?
A. Increased total body water
