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NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam 2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

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NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam 2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

Institution
NURS 231
Course
NURS 231

Content preview

NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam
2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions &
Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology
Assessment | Pass Guarantee



1.​ A 64-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with exertional
dyspnea and bibasilar crackles. Which cellular adaptation in myocardial fibers is
the primary contributor to his decreased ventricular compliance?​
A. Atrophy​
B. Metaplasia​
C. Hypertrophy​
D. Dysplasia​
Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Chronic pressure overload stimulates parallel sarcomere deposition →
concentric hypertrophy. Myocytes enlarge but the ventricular wall becomes stiff,
reducing diastolic filling (compliance). Other choices do not explain increased
wall thickness.
2.​ In diabetic ketoacidosis, which acid-base derangement is the direct consequence
of overproduction of acetoacetate?​
A. Respiratory acidosis​
B. Increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis​
C. Normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis​
D. Metabolic alkalosis​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Ketones are unmeasured anions; their accumulation consumes
bicarbonate → ↑ anion gap. Respiratory acidosis is not primary, and gap remains
elevated.
3.​ A patient in hypovolemic shock has continuous MAP 55 mmHg. Which renal
tubular segment is first to undergo ischemic necrosis?​
A. Distal convoluted tubule​
B. Thick ascending limb of Henle​
C. Proximal convoluted tubule​

, D. Collecting duct​
Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Proximal tubule (S3 segment) has highest O₂ demand for active
transport; earliest to show acute tubular necrosis.
4.​ A full-thickness burn exceeds 30 % TBSA. Which circulating mediator best
explains the systemic capillary leak that produces burn shock?​
A. Histamine​
B. Bradykinin​
C. Interleukin-6​
D. Thromboxane A₂​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Bradykinin increases endothelial permeability by loosening junctions;
major contributor to plasma volume loss. Histamine acts locally; IL-6 is later
cytokine; TXA₂ causes vasoconstriction.
5.​ A patient with severe COPD retains CO₂. His serum bicarbonate is 38 mEq/L after
4 days. Which renal mechanism maintains this compensation?​
A. Increased carbonic anhydrase activity in distal tubule​
B. Decreased NH₄⁺ excretion​
C. Increased HCO₃⁻ reabsorption and H⁺ secretion​
D. Increased phosphate excretion​
Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Chronic respiratory acidosis → kidneys increase H⁺ secretion (via
H⁺-ATPase) and HCO₃⁻ generation/reabsorption, raising serum bicarbonate.
6.​ A 22-year-old with T1DM forgets evening insulin and develops nausea, vomiting,
and K⁺ 5.8 mEq/L despite total-body potassium depletion. Which process
explains the hyperkalemia?​
A. Insulin deficit → K⁺ shift into ICF​
B. Insulin deficit → K⁺ shift out of ICF​
C. Osmotic diuresis → decreased K⁺ excretion​
D. Metabolic acidosis stimulates aldosterone​
Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Insulin normally drives K⁺ into cells via Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase. Absence
causes extracellular shift. Later, osmotic diuresis depletes total body K⁺.
7.​ Which pathophysiologic mechanism underlies the warm, flushed skin seen in
septic shock prior to vasopressor administration?​
A. Sympathetic overactivity​
B. Increased nitric oxide → arteriovenous shunting​
C. Endothelin-1 release​
D. Complement-mediated vasoconstriction​

, Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Cytokine-induced iNOS produces NO → systemic vasodilation &
shunting; cutaneous perfusion rises → warmth. Sympathetic overactivity causes
cold, clammy skin (later).
8.​ A patient with Alzheimer disease shows rapidly declining attention and
fluctuating cognition. Which neurotransmitter deficit best correlates with these
findings?​
A. Dopamine​
B. Norepinephrine​
C. Acetylcholine​
D. Serotonin​
Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Cholinergic neurons in nucleus basalis of Meynert project to cortex;
loss impairs attention & memory. Dopamine loss is Parkinson’s hallmark.
9.​ Which renal hemodynamic change best explains the early hyperfiltration seen in
poorly controlled T2DM?​
A. Afferent arteriole vasoconstriction​
B. Efferent arteriole dilation​
C. Afferent arteriole dilation & efferent constriction​
D. Decreased renal prostaglandins​
Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Hyperglycemia ↑ GFR via afferent NO-mediated dilation and
RAAS-mediated efferent constriction → ↑ intraglomerular pressure.
10.​ A patient with cirrhosis develops increasing abdominal girth and
hypoalbuminemia. Which Starling force alteration produces ascites?​
A. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure​
B. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure​
C. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure in splanchnic bed​
D. All of the above​
Correct Answer: D​
Rationale: Hypoalbuminemia lowers plasma oncotic; portal hypertension raises
capillary hydrostatic; sinusoidal leakage raises interstitial oncotic—all favor fluid
translocation.
11.​ In acute pancreatitis, which enzyme activation is the primary trigger of
autodigestion and vascular injury?​
A. Amylase​
B. Lipase​
C. Trypsinogen → trypsin​
D. Elastase​

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