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NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam 2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

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NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam 2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions & Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology Assessment | Pass Guarantee

Institution
NURS 231
Course
NURS 231

Content preview

NURS 231 Pathophysiology | Portage Learning | Final Exam
2026/2027 Complete Final Examination | Actual Questions &
Verified Answers | Comprehensive Pathophysiology
Assessment | Pass Guarantee




1.​ A 68-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with fatigue and
decreased urine output. Labs show BUN 68 mg/dL, creatinine 3.2 mg/dL, and
Hgb 8.9 g/dL. Urinalysis reveals broad, waxy casts. Which pathophysiologic
process best explains the anemia?​
A. Decreased production of erythropoietin by diseased renal peritubular cells​
B. Dietary folate deficiency secondary to uremic anorexia​
C. Hemolysis from microangiopathic changes​
D. Bone-marrow suppression by circulating inflammatory cytokines

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chronic kidney disease (CKD) reduces renal peritubular fibroblast secretion
of erythropoietin (EPO), blunting marrow red-cell production → normocytic,
normochromic anemia. Not primarily nutritional, hemolytic, or cytokine-driven.

2.​ The same patient develops K⁺ 6.1 mEq/L and peaked T waves. Which
intracellular–extracellular shift contributes most to hyperkalemia in CKD?​
A. Insulin excess driving K⁺ into cells​
B. Metabolic acidosis forcing K⁺ out of cells in exchange for H⁺​
C. Aldosterone excess increasing K⁺ secretion​
D. Beta-2 agonist stimulation of Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase

Correct Answer: B

,Rationale: Accumulated organic & inorganic acids extracellularly are buffered partly by
intracellular K⁺ efflux (H⁺↔K⁺ anti-port), compounding the renal K⁺ retention already
present in CKD.

3.​ A 22-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes reports waking with headache,
nightmares, and capillary glucose 48 mg/dL. Which counter-regulatory hormone
is most responsible for her symptoms?​
A. Insulin​
B. Cortisol​
C. Epinephrine​
D. Growth hormone

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hypoglycemia rapidly triggers sympathoadrenal discharge; epinephrine
causes tremor, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and neuroglycopenic warning signals.

4.​ A patient in DKA has an anion gap of 28 mEq/L. The accumulation of which
ketoacid accounts for the greatest fraction of the gap?​
A. Lactic acid​
B. Beta-hydroxybutyrate​
C. Acetoacetate​
D. Pyroglutamic acid

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Insulin deficiency accelerates lipolysis → hepatic beta-oxidation →
beta-hydroxybutyrate (4-carbon) predominates over acetoacetate by ~3:1 in severe
DKA.

5.​ A 55-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis develops ascites and ankle edema.
Which Starling-forcing alteration is primary?​
A. ↓ plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia​
B. ↑ interstitial oncotic pressure from protein-rich exudate​
C. ↑ capillary hydrostatic pressure from portal hypertension​
D. ↓ interstitial hydrostatic pressure

,Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sinusoidal hypertension (portal HTN) drives fluid across hepatic fenestrated
endothelium into peritoneum; ascitic fluid is low-protein (transudate), implicating
hydrostatic, not oncotic, change.

6.​ The same patient becomes confused with asterixis. Serum NH₃ is 110 µmol/L.
How does hyperammonemia produce neurologic dysfunction?​
A. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → excessive stimulation​
B. Depletes GABA, leading to seizures​
C. Consumes α-ketoglutarate in astrocytes → impaired TCA cycle & oxidative
metabolism​
D. Causes neuronal demyelination via complement activation

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: NH₃ + α-ketoglutarate → glutamate → glutamine; TCA cycle intermediate loss
and glutamine osmotic swelling injure astrocytes → neurocognitive deficits.

7.​ A 70-kg burn patient has full-thickness burns to entire right arm (anterior &
posterior) and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines, approximate %TBSA and
expected 24-h crystalloid need per Parkland.​
A. 27 % → 8640 mL​
B. 36 % → 10,080 mL​
C. 18 % → 5040 mL​
D. 45 % → 12,600 mL

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Arm 9 % + anterior trunk 18 % = 27 %. Parkland 4 mL × kg × %TBSA = 4 × 70 ×
27 = 7560 mL; choices rounded, 8640 mL closest.

8.​ Which inflammatory mediator is most responsible for the massive capillary leak
seen in the first 24 h post-burn?​
A. Histamine​
B. Interleukin-1​

, C. Prostaglandin E₂​
D. Bradykinin

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Thermal injury triggers mast-cell degranulation → histamine → immediate
endothelial gap formation and protein-rich exudate.

9.​ A 65-year-old woman with heart failure (EF 30 %) is prescribed furosemide.
Which acid-base imbalance is most likely with high-dose chronic use?​
A. Metabolic acidosis​
B. Metabolic alkalosis​
Contraction alkalosis from Cl⁻ and ECF loss with enhanced HCO₃⁻ reabsorption.​
D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Loop diuretics cause volume contraction, stimulating RAAS and distal H⁺/K⁺
secretion → contraction (chloride-responsive) metabolic alkalosis.

10.​ A patient with COPD retains CO₂ and has pH 7.28. Which renal compensatory
process occurs over days?​
A. ↑ HCO₃⁻ reabsorption and generation by proximal tubule cells​
B. ↓ NH₄⁺ excretion​
C. ↓ K⁺ secretion​
D. ↓ aldosterone release

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Chronic hypercapnia ↑ renal tubular HCO₃⁻ reclamation and new bicarbonate
generation (↑ CA, ↑ NH₃) to buffer acidosis.

11.​ A 60-year-old man develops acute asthma. His PaCO₂ is 55 mmHg (N 35–45).
This value suggests:​
A. Mild bronchospasm​
B. Appropriate hyperventilation​
C. Impending respiratory muscle fatigue & severe obstruction​
D. Compensated metabolic alkalosis

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