NR 565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM (CHAMBERLAIN) PRACTICE EXAM TEST
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS
What are two functions of naloxone when a patient is on buprenorphine?
A. Prevention of toxicity
B. Stop c\onstipation caused by Buprenorphine
C. Cannot readily reverse toxicity already occurring
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Why must an NP be cautious when prescribing medications to the elderly population?
A. Due to their diagnosis of dementia.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
C. The elderly population metabolizes medication faster.
D. Prescribe as usual. No difference in elderly patients.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
There are several points of education that should be given to a patient taking
acetaminophen. Which of these statements if made by the patient taking acetaminophen
is incorrect?
A. "If I take one dose, I should wait at least four hours to take another."
B. "There is no limit to how many tablets I can take each day."
,C. "I should not take Tylenol if I have liver disease or chronically drink alcohol."
D. "I can take 325-650mg for mild pain, and 500-1000mg for moderate pain."
B. "There is no limit to how many tablets you can take each day."
What is the point of a prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP)?
A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose
B. Make prescribing faster for providers
C. Educate patients about overdose
D. Provide correct dosing and pricing information for providers
A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose
The purpose of black box warnings is to make providers aware of
A. ways to reduce and prevent harm, such as pregnant women avoiding teratogenic drugs.
B. potential common side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, or upset stomach.
C. potential severe side effects, such as fetal harm, suicidality, or near-fatal dysrhythmias.
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Patients with renal and hepatic insufficiency can experience all of the following effects
from medications except:
, A. Greater peak effects
B. Longer duration of action
C. Increased risk for respiratory depression
D. Increased dosages of medications
E. Increased risk of overdose
D. Increased dosages of medications
The NP understands it is best to avoid prescribing a patient both quinidine and digoxin
concurrently because:
A. Digoxin increases increases the rate of absorption of Quinidine
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
C. Quinidine increases renal excretion of digoxin.
D. Digoxin delays the onset of action of Quinidine.
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
Why is the BEERS criteria important?
A. It identifies medications with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults.
B. Medications on this list should always be given to adults older than 65 years old.
C. It identifies medications that require their dosage to be increased in the presence of
impaired kidney function in older adults.
D. It identifies medications frequently prescribed to older adults that are affordable.
A. It identifies drugs with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults.
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS
What are two functions of naloxone when a patient is on buprenorphine?
A. Prevention of toxicity
B. Stop c\onstipation caused by Buprenorphine
C. Cannot readily reverse toxicity already occurring
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Why must an NP be cautious when prescribing medications to the elderly population?
A. Due to their diagnosis of dementia.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
C. The elderly population metabolizes medication faster.
D. Prescribe as usual. No difference in elderly patients.
B. They are high risk for polypharmacy.
There are several points of education that should be given to a patient taking
acetaminophen. Which of these statements if made by the patient taking acetaminophen
is incorrect?
A. "If I take one dose, I should wait at least four hours to take another."
B. "There is no limit to how many tablets I can take each day."
,C. "I should not take Tylenol if I have liver disease or chronically drink alcohol."
D. "I can take 325-650mg for mild pain, and 500-1000mg for moderate pain."
B. "There is no limit to how many tablets you can take each day."
What is the point of a prescription drug monitoring program (PDMP)?
A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose
B. Make prescribing faster for providers
C. Educate patients about overdose
D. Provide correct dosing and pricing information for providers
A. Help identify patients who may be at risk for overdose
The purpose of black box warnings is to make providers aware of
A. ways to reduce and prevent harm, such as pregnant women avoiding teratogenic drugs.
B. potential common side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, or upset stomach.
C. potential severe side effects, such as fetal harm, suicidality, or near-fatal dysrhythmias.
D. Both A and C
D. Both A and C
Patients with renal and hepatic insufficiency can experience all of the following effects
from medications except:
, A. Greater peak effects
B. Longer duration of action
C. Increased risk for respiratory depression
D. Increased dosages of medications
E. Increased risk of overdose
D. Increased dosages of medications
The NP understands it is best to avoid prescribing a patient both quinidine and digoxin
concurrently because:
A. Digoxin increases increases the rate of absorption of Quinidine
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
C. Quinidine increases renal excretion of digoxin.
D. Digoxin delays the onset of action of Quinidine.
B. Quinidine can promote digoxin toxicity.
Why is the BEERS criteria important?
A. It identifies medications with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults.
B. Medications on this list should always be given to adults older than 65 years old.
C. It identifies medications that require their dosage to be increased in the presence of
impaired kidney function in older adults.
D. It identifies medications frequently prescribed to older adults that are affordable.
A. It identifies drugs with a high likelihood of causing adverse effects in older adults.
