HESI RN ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY (NEW UPDATED VERSION)
LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
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HESI RN – Advanced Pathophysiology
Practice Exam
Answers and Rationales Included
1–10: Cardiovascular System
1. A patient with left-sided heart failure develops pulmonary edema. The underlying
pathophysiology is:
A. Systemic venous congestion
B. Backward pressure into pulmonary circulation
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Left atrial dilation only
Answer: B
Rationale: Left ventricular failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
increasing hydrostatic pressure and causing fluid leakage into alveoli.
2. Which lab marker is most specific for myocardial damage?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. LDH
Rationale: Troponin is cardiac specific and remains elevated longer.
3. Aortic stenosis most commonly results in:
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Right atrial enlargement
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C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Increased preload only
Rationale: Narrowed outflow leads to pressure overload and LVH.
4. What is the primary mechanism of stable angina?
A. Coronary vasospasm
B. Fixed atherosclerotic plaque limiting blood flow
C. Myocardial rupture
D. Valve regurgitation
Rationale: Fixed plaque limits oxygen supply during exertion.
5. A patient with acute MI is hypotensive and tachycardic due to:
A. Increased stroke volume
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased preload
D. Decreased heart rate
Rationale: Damaged myocardium impairs contractility and CO.
6. BNP elevation indicates:
A. Liver failure
B. Heart failure with volume overload
C. Renal colic
D. Pulmonary embolus
Rationale: BNP is secreted in response to ventricular stretch.
7. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at risk for:
A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Embolic stroke
C. Pneumonia
D. Aortic aneurysm
Rationale: Stasis in atria increases clot formation.
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8. Angiotensin II causes:
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction and aldosterone release
C. Bradycardia
D. Decreased BP
Rationale: It increases BP and sodium retention.
9. Pulmonary hypertension can lead to:
A. Left heart enlargement
B. Right ventricular hypertrophy and failure (cor pulmonale)
C. Aortic rupture
D. Hypovolemia
Rationale: Elevated pulmonary pressures strain RV.
10. A widened pulse pressure (>50 mmHg) can indicate:
A. Hypovolemia
B. Aortic regurgitation or increased stroke volume
C. Dehydration
D. Bradycardia
11–20: Pulmonary System
11. In COPD, the primary problem is:
A. V/Q matching
B. Alveolar destruction and airflow limitation
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pulmonary edema
Rationale: Emphysema and chronic bronchitis impair airflow.
12. Which finding is typical in emphysema?
A. Thick secretions
B. Loss of alveolar walls and air trapping
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C. Productive cough only
D. Increased diffusion capacity
13. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) involves:
A. Increased surfactant
B. Diffuse alveolar damage leading to hypoxemia
C. Bronchospasm
D. Pneumothorax
14. A primary cause of COPD hypoxemia is:
A. Hyperventilation
B. V/Q mismatch
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. High altitude only
15. Clubbing of the fingers suggests:
A. Acute asthma
B. Chronic hypoxemia
C. PE
D. Hypercapnia
16. A patient with pulmonary embolism typically has:
A. Bradycardia
B. Sudden dyspnea and pleuritic pain
C. Weight gain
D. Productive cough
17. In restrictive lung disease, total lung capacity is:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged
D. Variable
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