CIST Comprehensive Practice Questions and Rationales for Exam Success

What is the biggest disadvantage of the star topology? A. Requires more cabling B. It has a single point of failure C. Difficult to troubleshoot D. Limited number of devices Rationale: A star topology relies on a central hub or switch. If the hub fails, the entire network goes down. Other options are disadvantages to some extent, but they are less critical than the single point of failure. Stateless filtering does not filter on the basis of the context of the communication, and so it has limited value in a firewall. A. True B. False Rationale: Stateless firewalls examine packets individually without considering the connection state. Stateful firewalls are more effective because they track connections. TCP/IP consists of nearly 200 nonproprietary protocols that interconnect computer systems efficiently and reliably. A. True B. False Rationale: TCP/IP is a suite of protocols, but it does not contain nearly 200 protocols. The claim exaggerates the size of the TCP/IP protocol suite. Are network classes A through C intended for unicast addressing methods? A. True B. False Rationale: Classes A, B, and C are primarily used for unicast (one-to-one) communication. Broadcast or multicast addressing uses other mechanisms. Which EIA/TIA standard specifies various wiring closet configurations? A. 568 B. 569 C. 570 D. 571 Rationale: TIA/EIA-569 standardizes telecommunications pathways and wiring closet layouts. Other options refer to different wiring standards. Which useradd command parameter gives an account description? A. -d B. -m C. -c D. -u Rationale: The -c parameter allows adding a comment or description to the user account. The others set home directories or user IDs. With which version(s) of IP is IPSec compatible? A. IPv4 only B. IPv6 only C. IPv4 and IPv6 D. None Rationale: IPSec works with both IPv4 and IPv6, providing encryption and authentication. UDP does not provide the same level of reliability and error checking as TCP, because it relies only on the checksum to ensure reliability. A. True B. False Rationale: UDP is connectionless and provides minimal error checking with a checksum. TCP is connection-oriented and ensures reliability through acknowledgments and retransmissions. Which User Configuration component controls access to Logon/Logoff capabilities, scripts, and Task Manager functions? A. System B. Network C. Security D. Preferences Rationale: The System component in Group Policy controls logon/logoff scripts and Task Manager access. Other components control network, security, or user preferences. Which of the following options is a preconfigured security setting in the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security Configuration component? A. Low B. Medium C. Medium-high D. High Rationale: Medium-high is the default for IE Enhanced Security Configuration to provide a balance between security and functionality. WLANA is a consortium of universities researching wireless networking, located at Rutgers University. A. True B. False Rationale: WLANA does not exist at Rutgers. This statement is false. How many copies of the ASR set should you have for a server? A 1 B 2 C 2 D 4 Rationale: Having two copies ensures redundancy in case one set is lost or damaged. More copies can be kept, but two is the standard recommendation. In NetWare, the file contains commands used by the startup program. A. True B. False Rationale: The file is executed during server startup to configure NetWare services. Other options are incorrect because this is its primary function. The Digispid.B.Worm targets systems running the SQL Server database on Windows-based workstations and servers. A. True B. False Rationale: This worm specifically exploits vulnerabilities in SQL Server environments, making this statement correct. Which of the following tabs is available only in Windows Server 2003? A. Security B. Network C. Hardware D. COM+ Rationale: COM+ is a management tab specific to Windows Server 2003, used for Component Services. Other tabs exist in multiple Windows versions. When a network consists of Windows 2000 or later operating systems, Kerberos is the preferred logon authentication method. A. True B. False Rationale: Kerberos is more secure than NTLM, providing ticket-based authentication for Windows networks starting with Windows 2000. Information about groups is stored in the /etc/shadow file, which typically contains an entry for each group, consisting of the name of the group, an encrypted group password, the GID, and a list of group members. A. True B. False Rationale: Group information is stored in /etc/group, not /etc/shadow. The shadow file stores encrypted user passwords. Directories or folders and network printers are two important examples of resources that can be shared. A. True B. False Rationale: Both are commonly shared network resources. Other resources can also be shared, but these are primary examples. Which authentication method authenticates by using tickets to verify client and server communications, and employs private-key encryption? A. NTLM B. SSL C. Kerberos D. TACACS Rationale: Kerberos uses ticket-based authentication with symmetric key encryption. NTLM is older and less secure; SSL secures connections but is not an authentication method; TACACS is for AAA services. To hide a share in Windows XP/2003, place the # sign just after its name. A. True B. False Rationale: Hidden shares in Windows end with a $, not a #. The statement is incorrect. What is one of the disadvantages of a ring network? A. Difficult to troubleshoot B. It is more expensive to implement than a bus topology C. Slower data transfer D. Limited to small networks Rationale: Ring networks require more cabling and hardware, making them more costly than bus topologies. Troubleshooting can be difficult, but cost is the main disadvantage. Which NetWare 6.x SCRSAVER command parameter, entered in seconds, determines the amount of time that the keyboard is inactive before the screen saver starts? A. Timeout B. Interval C. Delay D. Wait Rationale: The Delay parameter sets the inactivity period before the screensaver activates. Other options do not control the timing for SCRSAVER. Is using the monitoring software that comes with an operating system one of the best places to start when determining the performance and use of an operating system or network? A. False B. True Rationale: Built-in monitoring tools provide basic information, but they are often insufficient for in-depth performance analysis. Specialized monitoring software is preferred. Remote access security involves requiring a user account and password to access a particular operating system or to be validated to access a network through a directory service. A. False B. True Rationale: Remote access security also includes encryption, VPNs, and multifactor authentication; simply having a username/password is not sufficient. Many systems use datasets to store data until it is ready to be used. A. False B. True Rationale: Modern systems generally use memory buffers or databases rather than traditional datasets; the statement is outdated. In a source routing attack, the attacker modifies the _____ and routing information to make a packet appear to come from a different source, such as one that is already trusted for communications on a network. A. Destination address B. Source address C. Packet size D. Protocol type Rationale: Source routing attacks involve changing the source IP address to spoof trusted communications. Other options do not describe this attack. The API is software that resides between the application software and the operating system kernel. A. True B. False Rationale: APIs provide a standard interface so applications can interact with the OS without needing to manage hardware directly. A(n) socket is like a virtual circuit between two services or processes communicating between two different computers or network devices. A. True B. False Rationale: A socket is an endpoint for communication, not a “virtual circuit.” TCP connections use sockets but the socket itself is not a circuit. What type of attack has occurred when a logged-on computer is used when that person is not present? A. Standalone Workstation B. Network Workstation C. Trojan Horse D. Worm Rationale: Unauthorized use of a physical workstation without the owner present is classified as a Standalone Workstation attack. Other attacks involve network intrusion or malware. The _____ translates information from the kernel and device drivers so the application can use it. A. BIOS B. API C. Firewall D. TCP/IP Rationale: The API allows applications to interact with the kernel and hardware. BIOS handles boot processes; firewalls control access; TCP/IP handles networking. The traceroute troubleshooting utility can be used by which of the following operating systems? A. UNIX B. MAC OS C. NetWare D. Windows Rationale: Traceroute is supported on UNIX, macOS, and Windows. NetWare typically does not use standard traceroute utilities. What is the biggest disadvantage of the star topology? A. High cabling costs B. Difficult to add new devices C. It has a single point of failure D. Slow data transmission Rationale: In a star topology, all devices connect to a central hub. If the hub fails, the entire network goes down. Other options are secondary concerns. Stateless filtering does not filter on the basis of the context of the communication, and so it has limited value in a firewall. A. True B. False Rationale: Stateless firewalls examine only individual packets, ignoring the sequence of communication. This limits their ability to detect complex attacks. TCP/IP consists of nearly 200 nonproprietary protocols that interconnect computer systems efficiently and reliably. A. True B. False Rationale: TCP/IP is a standard suite of protocols, but it does not consist of nearly 200 separate protocols. The number is exaggerated. Are network classes A through C intended for unicast addressing methods? A. True B. False Rationale: Classes A, B, and C IP addresses are primarily designed for unicast addressing. Multicast and broadcast use different ranges. Which EIA/TIA standard specifies various wiring closet configurations? A. 568 B. 569 C. 570 D. 569 Rationale: TIA/EIA-569 provides standard guidelines for telecommunications pathways and spaces. Other options do not define wiring closets. Which useradd command parameter gives an account description? A. -d B. -m C. -c D. -s Rationale: The -c flag in useradd is used to provide a description for the user account. Other options define home directories, shells, or create home folders. With which version(s) of IP is IPSec compatible? A. IPv4 B. IPv6 C. IPv4 and IPv6 D. Neither Rationale: IPSec was designed to be a mandatory security feature in IPv6, though it can be optionally used in IPv4. UDP does not provide the same level of reliability and error checking as TCP, because it relies only on the checksum to ensure reliability. A. True B. False Rationale: UDP is connectionless and does not guarantee delivery, order, or error correction beyond a basic checksum. TCP provides full reliability. Which User Configuration component controls access to Logon/Logoff capabilities, scripts, and Task Manager functions? A. Security B. Preferences C. System D. Network Rationale: The System component in group policy defines user-level controls over system functions like Logon/Logoff scripts and Task Manager access. Which of the following options is a preconfigured security setting in the Internet Explorer Enhanced Security Configuration component? A. Low B. Medium C. Medium-high D. High Rationale: IE ESC uses Medium-high security as a default to limit exposure to web-based threats while allowing limited browsing. WLANA is a consortium of universities researching wireless networking, located at Rutgers University. A. False B. True Rationale: WLANA does not exist; the statement is false. Wireless networking research is conducted by multiple consortia, but this one is fabricated. How many copies of the ASR set should you have for a server? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Rationale: Having at least two copies of Automated System Recovery sets ensures redundancy in case of media failure. In NetWare, the file contains commands used by the startup program. A. True B. False Rationale: The file automates server initialization tasks. This is critical for NetWare server startup. The Digispid.B.Worm targets systems running the SQL Server database on Windows-based workstations and servers. A. True B. False Rationale: Digispid.B specifically exploits SQL Server vulnerabilities on Windows systems. Which of the following tabs is available only in Windows Server 2003? A. Security B. Performance C. COM+ D. Sharing Rationale: COM+ management is unique to Windows Server 2003, providing configuration options for component services.