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SLP Praxis Practice (Form 1) with solutions
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk 
infants? 
A.Establishing object permanence through play activities 
B.Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning 
C.Creating readiness activities in the context of play 
D.Enhancing social communication through play activities - Training primary caregivers to 
facilitate language learning 
The figure above shows the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures involved in swallowing. 
W...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 46 pages •
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk 
infants? 
A.Establishing object permanence through play activities 
B.Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning 
C.Creating readiness activities in the context of play 
D.Enhancing social communication through play activities - Training primary caregivers to 
facilitate language learning 
The figure above shows the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures involved in swallowing. 
W...
SLP Praxis II Practice Test with solutions
Which theory/theories of language acquisition emphasize(s) nature over nurture? - 
 Generativist theories 
Chomsky and Lenneberg 
What are parts of Chomsky's transformational grammar? - Deep structure 
Surface structure 
Structural changes 
Hidden assumptions 
MacWhinney's Competition Model is a language development theory that is: - 
 Emergentist theory of language development 
Claims that language acquisition is a cognitive process emerging from the interactions of 
biology and the envir...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 3 pages •
Which theory/theories of language acquisition emphasize(s) nature over nurture? - 
 Generativist theories 
Chomsky and Lenneberg 
What are parts of Chomsky's transformational grammar? - Deep structure 
Surface structure 
Structural changes 
Hidden assumptions 
MacWhinney's Competition Model is a language development theory that is: - 
 Emergentist theory of language development 
Claims that language acquisition is a cognitive process emerging from the interactions of 
biology and the envir...
SLP Praxis Form 1 with solutions
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk 
infants? 
A. Establishing object permanence through play activities 
B. Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning 
C. Creating readiness activities in the context of play 
D. Enhancing social communication through play activities - Correct Answer: B 
Option (B) is correct. Early language stimulation in at-risk infants is best provided by primary 
caregivers who have been trained in pr...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 47 pages •
Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk 
infants? 
A. Establishing object permanence through play activities 
B. Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learning 
C. Creating readiness activities in the context of play 
D. Enhancing social communication through play activities - Correct Answer: B 
Option (B) is correct. Early language stimulation in at-risk infants is best provided by primary 
caregivers who have been trained in pr...
SLP PRAXIS 2020: Foundations and Professional Practice (part 1) with solutions
Developmental norms: birth - 1 month - phonation: reflexive sounds, vocalizations, and 
nasals 
Developmental norms: 2-4 months - Cooing: reflexive smiling, vocalizing vowels, and 
laughing 
Developmental norms: 4-6 months - expansion/exploring stage: bilabials, look towards 
named family members, more adult like vowels, control of articulators 
Developmental norms: 6-10 months - canonical/reduplicated babbling: begin to gesture 
and have intonation 
Developmental norms: 8-10/12 months - variega...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 17 pages •
Developmental norms: birth - 1 month - phonation: reflexive sounds, vocalizations, and 
nasals 
Developmental norms: 2-4 months - Cooing: reflexive smiling, vocalizing vowels, and 
laughing 
Developmental norms: 4-6 months - expansion/exploring stage: bilabials, look towards 
named family members, more adult like vowels, control of articulators 
Developmental norms: 6-10 months - canonical/reduplicated babbling: begin to gesture 
and have intonation 
Developmental norms: 8-10/12 months - variega...
Research, EBP, practice of SLP Praxis with solutions
A. There is not a normal distribution of the data. 
Key word - nonparametric stats - used when there is not a normal distribution of the data 
C and D are not applicable - A speech scientist is analyzing data collected from a recently 
completed study. In order to properly analyze the data, she utilizes nonparametric statistical 
procedures. Which of the following scenarios BEST describes the scientist's data? 
A. There is not a normal distribution of the data. 
B. There is a normal distribut...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 7 pages •
A. There is not a normal distribution of the data. 
Key word - nonparametric stats - used when there is not a normal distribution of the data 
C and D are not applicable - A speech scientist is analyzing data collected from a recently 
completed study. In order to properly analyze the data, she utilizes nonparametric statistical 
procedures. Which of the following scenarios BEST describes the scientist's data? 
A. There is not a normal distribution of the data. 
B. There is a normal distribut...
Praxis SLP Exam - Anatomy and Cranial Nerves with solutions
Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve? 
A.V 
B.VII 
C.IX 
D.X - Option (D) is correct. Primary innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by 
cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve. The other answer choices identify cranial nerves that are not 
primarily involved in motor innervation to the larynx and velum. 
A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations of the right side of the tongue and lower 
face. The client also has right vocal-fold w...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 9 pages •
Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve? 
A.V 
B.VII 
C.IX 
D.X - Option (D) is correct. Primary innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by 
cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve. The other answer choices identify cranial nerves that are not 
primarily involved in motor innervation to the larynx and velum. 
A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations of the right side of the tongue and lower 
face. The client also has right vocal-fold w...
NURS 518 Exam 1 Ch. 1-6 with solutions
World Health Organization definition of health - a state of complete physical, mental, and 
social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity 
Healthy People 2020 Health Definition - Health is an interaction between an individual's 
biology and behavior, physical and social environments, government policies and interventions, 
and access to quality health care. 
Attain high-quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature 
death. 
Achieve...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 17 pages •
World Health Organization definition of health - a state of complete physical, mental, and 
social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity 
Healthy People 2020 Health Definition - Health is an interaction between an individual's 
biology and behavior, physical and social environments, government policies and interventions, 
and access to quality health care. 
Attain high-quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature 
death. 
Achieve...
NU 518 Exam 1 Study Questions with solutions
1. For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate? 
A) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I sprained my ankle" 
B) An established patient with the chief complaint of "I have an upper respiratory infection" 
C) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I am here to establish care" 
D) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I cut my hand" - C 
2. The components of the health history include all of the following except wh...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 106 pages •
1. For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate? 
A) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I sprained my ankle" 
B) An established patient with the chief complaint of "I have an upper respiratory infection" 
C) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I am here to establish care" 
D) A new patient with the chief complaint of "I cut my hand" - C 
2. The components of the health history include all of the following except wh...
NU 518 assessment with solutions
Mental Status - appearance & behavior, alert, posture, dress, affect, mood, judgement 
orientation - person, place, time 
memory - immediate, recent, remote 
CN 1 - olfactory - nostrils / identify oder 
CN II - optic - vision with Snellen 4 ft & 20 ft 
CN II, III - 2 - optic / 3 - occulomotor -- pupillary reactions 
CN III, IV, VI - extraocular movements 
CN IV - trochlear (EOM) 
CN VI - Abducens (EOM) 
CN V - Trigeminal - test jaw and dull / sharp on face (facial sensation) 
CN VII - Facial mov...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 3 pages •
Mental Status - appearance & behavior, alert, posture, dress, affect, mood, judgement 
orientation - person, place, time 
memory - immediate, recent, remote 
CN 1 - olfactory - nostrils / identify oder 
CN II - optic - vision with Snellen 4 ft & 20 ft 
CN II, III - 2 - optic / 3 - occulomotor -- pupillary reactions 
CN III, IV, VI - extraocular movements 
CN IV - trochlear (EOM) 
CN VI - Abducens (EOM) 
CN V - Trigeminal - test jaw and dull / sharp on face (facial sensation) 
CN VII - Facial mov...
Florida Health, Life & Annuity End of Course Exam 4 with solutions
Identify the part of the application that would have the applicant's medical history: 
Select one: 
a. Part 1 
b. Part 2 
c. Part 3 
d. All of the above - Part 2 of the application collects information about the applicant's 
medical history. 
The correct answer is: Part 2 
All of the following demonstrate constructive delivery, EXCEPT: 
Select one: 
a. A conditional receipt is issued to the applicant 
b. The insurer mails the policy to the agent, who in turn, mails the policy to the insure...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 74 pages •
Identify the part of the application that would have the applicant's medical history: 
Select one: 
a. Part 1 
b. Part 2 
c. Part 3 
d. All of the above - Part 2 of the application collects information about the applicant's 
medical history. 
The correct answer is: Part 2 
All of the following demonstrate constructive delivery, EXCEPT: 
Select one: 
a. A conditional receipt is issued to the applicant 
b. The insurer mails the policy to the agent, who in turn, mails the policy to the insure...