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Patient with newly diagnosed breast cancer. Tumor was 3 cm in size, with five positive lymph nodes on axillary dissection. No other sites of cancer spread. According to TNM staging system, what stage of breast cancer is this? Stage IIIA The histology code for renal cell carcinoma (conventional type) is: 8312/39 True or False: Pathologic N identifies the presence or absence of nodal metastasis of the tumor prior to the completion of surgical therapy. False. The complete co...

Cancer registry monitoring of facility case completeness should be performed On an ongoing basis __________________ staging provides a more precise description of the patient's extent of disease. Pathological (staging) Reference: CRM3 Section 3, Cancer Staging A major quality of NAACCR is: a. Provide standards for coding and staging b. Certify registries that meet national data quality standards c. Train and educate registry staff d. All of the above d. All of the abov...

According to the CoC Program standards, whose responsibility is it to establish the attendance requirements for the multidisciplinary cancer conference/ tumor board Cancer Committee Cancer registry personnel Physician liaison Quality improvement coordinator Cancer Committee Supraglottis is within the Esophagus Larynx Pharynx Stomach Larynx Pt had mammo on 3/1/09. Report documented right upper quadrant mass, probable malignancy. Bx performed 3/10/09 showed intraductal ...

What level of protection is needed for confidential health information within an organization? a. Maximum protection b. Minimally required protection c. Reasonable protection d. Total protection c. Reasonable protection In the central registry record consolidation process, reports of cancer submitted to the central registry from hospital cancer registries, pathology laboratories, radiation therapy centers, and other sources are: a. Consolidated records b. Patient records c. Source...

sarcoma Solid tumors of connective tissue. lymphomas & leukemia sarcomas tend to spread by hematologic routes carcinomas spread via lymphatics Adenocarcinoma are predominantly glandular or ductal squamous cell carcinoma arise from stratified squamous epithelium Extra lymphatic sites stomach, skin, lungs Rituxumab immunotherapy (lymphoma) lymphatic organs lymph nodes, tonsils, Waldeyers ring, spleen, thymus, Peyer patches prognostic ...

Grade A measure of how much the malignant cell resembles a normal or non-malignant cell of the same type. Topography Four-character code for the body site where the tumor arises. Morphology code 8500 represents the correct format for a morphology code. Casefinding timeliness in a central registry is determined by ? The planned use of the data, and the agency which the central registry reports to, such as NPCR. Unspecified/other malignant neoplasm of skin of scalp ...

Supraglottis, glottis and subglottis are subsites of the: Larynx The inpatient medical record disease index is most useful for which Cancer Registry Activity? Casefinding Ann Arbor Staging System Malignant Lymphoma Integumentary Skin A hormonal agent Tamoxifen A classification for non-hodkins lymphoma? Follicular small cleaved cell and large cell A lymphoma would most likely arise in? Waldeyers ring Lymph node chains behind the knees? Popl...

Which of the following is a permissible disclosure of confidential patient information from the cancer registry? a. to a facility not involved with the patient's care b. to the pt c. to another registry for f/u purposes d. to the pt's attorney To another registry for f/u purposes What is a source of ca incidence & survival data from pop-based ca registries covering ~28% of US pop? a. ACoS CoC b. CDC NPCR c. NAACCR d. NCI SEER program NCI SEER program Medical data that a...

An inventory system whereby a supplier provides a complete inventory, storage, and distribution service for the facility and delivers to user departments on a pre- scheduled basis is known as stockless supply system The sequential compression unit would be used for which of the following conditions? to limit the development of deep vein thrombosis and peripheral edema Which of the following makes the decision whether to purchase, lease, or rent an equipment? hospital administrat...

Which of the following is a major cause of AER failures? Using incorrect connectors Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use? OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that SDS's (Safety Data Sheet) must be available for? All chemicals used in the department How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacturers? Each time the item is pur...

Bacillus stearothermophilus An organisms that a is commonly used as an indicator organism for the appropriate functioning of autoclaves because it grows at 56°C Bacillus atrophaeus spore used to monitor EtO and dry heat sterilization efficacy Bacteria (microbiology) single-celled or noncellular spherical or spiral or rod-shaped organisms lacking chlorophyll that reproduce by fission Bacteriocidal agent that kills bacteria Bacteriostatic inhibits growth of bacter...

Which of the following agencies regulates clearances for glutaraldehyde-based disinfectants? - OSHA - CDC - EPA - FDA FDA Which agency is responsible for employee health and safety at work? - EPA - FDA - CDC - OSHA OSHA Recommended practices are: - Statements of sound principles of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts - Principles, laws, or rules designed to govern behavior - Documents that reflects state and federal regulations - Est...

The main role of the sterile processing area is to provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care. Instruments sets and patient care equipment processing and distributing must be done accurately and timely so: patient care is not adversely affected ethics is doing the right thing compliance with OSHA is required by law Establishes sterile practice based on opinion, research and theory: AAMI(Association for the Advancement of Medical I...

High-level disinfection (at least) Semi critical devices should be processed by which disinfection method? Sterilization Critical devices should be processed by which disinfection method? Sanitization Non critical devices should be privy which disinfection method? Rigid, flexible, and semi-rigid Name the three different types of endoscopic scopes: High-level disinfection According to Spauldings classification of medical devices, a semi critical item requires whic...

A broken glass suction bottle is returned to Decontamination. Which of the following should the technician do? Place it in an appropriate rigid container Safety Data Sheets (SDS) provide health and safety hazard and risk information on which of the following? Chemical Which of the following generally describes the correct sequence for traffic workflow in areas in which medical devices are processed? Decontamination, Assembly, Packaging, Sterilization, Sterile Storage The ...

Why is it Important to evenly distribute large instruments in a set? Extra condensation will make the set more difficult to dry. Which of the following best describes the overall role of the CS/SPD? To provide dependable service to enhance patient care. Which of the following government agencies regulates environmental disinfectants? EPA The function of a ratchet can be checked by? Closing the ratchet on the first click, then tapping the handle on the worktable. D...

What should the sterilizer access area pressure be? Negative w/10 air exchanges per hour What two steps are involved in decontamination? 1. Manual and/or automated mechanical cleaning 2. application of a thermal or chemical disinfection process Define Cleaning... The removal of contamination from an item to the extent necessary for further processing or for the intended use. nosocomial infections are well documented and caused by... poor or ineffective decontamination o...

Which Foundation board is responsible for USPAP? A.) Appraiser Qualifications Board (AQB) B.) Appraisal Standards Board (ASB) C.) Appraisal Subcommittee (ASC) D.) Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) B.) Appraisal Standards Board (ASB) The Appraisal Foundation has the authority to enforce the requirements of USPAP. A.) True B.) False B.) False Currently, the boards within The Appraisal Foundation include: A.) Board of Trustees, Appraisal Standards Board, Appra...

Exposure Time Is retrospective opinion based on analysis of past events assuming a competitive open market 5 areas of Appraisal Review quality Completeness Accuracy Adequacy Relevance Reasonableness Appraisal Practice Valuation services performed by an individual acting as an appraiser, including but not limited to appraisal and appraisal review. USPAP only applies to Appraisal Practice Ethics Rule Sets requirements for integrity, impartiality, objectivity, etc ...

An Appraiser must retain a workfile for" Any assignment that is covered by standard rules. 5 years after preparation or at least 2 years after final disposition of judicial proceedings in which testimony was given, whichever period expires last. According to STANDARD 3, an appraiser performing an appraisal review must do all of the following except: The review appraiser may be asked to develop his or her own opinion of value as part of the review assignment, but the primary purpose ...