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ABPD Every patient with persistent asthma should use what kind of medication? - Answer-Daily controller medications Ideally: Inhaled corticosteroid (eg beclomethasone) What kind of medication is Albuterol? - Answer-Short acting beta agonist Beta2 agonist medications are associated with what (oral complications) - Answer-Decrease in salivary flow Decrease in plaque pH Muscle relaxation with subsequent gastroesophageal reflux and acid reflux What pain medication should you not use i...

ORAL BOARDS ABPD 2020 (DC) Dental Caries - Answer-Is a disease caused by an ecological shift in the composition and activity of the bacterial biofilm when exposed over time to fermentable carbohydrates, leading to a break in the balance between demineralization and remineralization. *Prior to diagnosing Caries rate; have to apply CAT: Biological/Protective/Clinical Findings Anticipatory Guidance - Answer-• OH, Fluoride, diet, habits • Injury prevention • Dental and oral developm...

ABPD Oral Boards Study Basics 2 (Orth): Crossbite present. Check for? - Answer-Check for functional shift. (Med) Toothpaste Recommendations - Answer-<3yo: smear >3yo: pea size (Dis) 1st vaccine child receives. - Answer-HepB (Dis) Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis - Answer--Viral infection -Tx: Palliative. Anti-pyretics. Cold popsicles. Hydration. -Signs: fever, malaise, cervical lymphadenopathy, vesicles progress to ulcers -Age: 6mo - 6r -Duration: 1-2 wks. Acute ...

ABPD ORAL BOARDS What is the probability that natal teeth are actually normal primary teeth? - Answer-Over 90%! Less than 10% are supernumaries. Where do natal teeth most often occur in the mouth? - Answer-Most in mandibular anterior region. Over 50% occur in pairs. What is the risk of topical anesthetics in infants? - Answer-Methemoglobinemia What is the possible etiology of natal teeth? - Answer-Superficial position of tooth bud, endocrine disorder, infection, Cleft lip and palate,...

ABPD QE What is the purpose of the Herbst appliance? - Answer-To correct skeletal class II malocclusion Displaces the mandible forward with lower dental protraction. Distalizes upper molars and restrains the maxilla Cervical-pull headgear is used for what purpose? - Answer-Optimizes molar distalization and extrusion Decreases overbite (so avoid with dolichofacial patients) A point moves 0.5-1mm distal, lower face height increases High-pull headgear is used for what purpose? - Ans...

ABPD Oral Boards Study Basics (Tra) Gray - Black colored anterior tooth. - Answer--Watch -Do pulpectomy with ZOE. (Tra) Yellow - Brown colored anterior tooth. - Answer--Watch -Indicative of pulp canal obliteration (PCO) (Tra) Pink colored anterior tooth. - Answer--Extract -Indicative of internal root resorption (Abx) SBE protects against what organisms? - Answer-Viridans streptococci Staph aurerus. Enterococcus Pseudomonas Serratia Candida (Abx) Indications for abx proph...

ABPD OCE Radiographs: Recall Patient - High Risk - Answer-6-12 mo 6-18 mo for adult Radiographs: Recall Patient - Low Risk - Answer-Primary + Mixed: 12-24 mo Adolescent: 18-36 mo Adult: 24-36 mo Localized Aggressive Perio in Primary Dentition Antibiotics - Answer-Amoxicillin and Metronidazole 7-10 days Localized Aggressive Perio in Permanent Incisors Definition and Antibiotics - Answer-Localized bone loss around permanent dentition and FPMs and no more than 2 other teeth Am...

CPH EXAM autonomy - Answer-•Free from external influence over independent decision-making. PH scenarios that defy autonomy: -Mandatory vaccination -Isolation - Separation of an infected person -Quarantine - Detention of healthy persons exposed to contagious disease 4th Amendment - Answer-Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures (not licensed businesses) -can have random inspections in PH, scope is lower Federalism - Answer-•Constitution establishes authority to ena...

ACTIVITY DIRECTOR motivate, socialize, build self worth, reduce regression, reduce depression. - Answer-What are 5 things an activity director can do? The environment, your leadership, equipment. - Answer-What 3 things can you change? A person - Answer-What can't you change? To plan individual activities that meet the cognitive, physical and psycho-social well being of each resident. - Answer-What is F-TAG 248? 24-48 hours: Activity Assessment 5-14 days: MDS (SECTION F) 14 da...

The OTA as Activity Director Q2 Activities Program - Answer-An ongoing plan for providing meaningful activities ,that is determined in relation to the individual needs and interest of the participants Goal is to promote physical,mental and social weel-being OBRA - Answer-Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act Nursing Home Reform Amendments Law mandating reforms in nursing homes Legislation and Regulations - Answer-Yearly inspections includes : Rights and quality of life Pre admission sc...

ACTIVITY DIRECTOR What five things can an activity program really do? - Answer-Reduce depression Reduce Confusion Socialization Learn new skills Active Participation Define OBRA - Answer-A facility must provide for a resident's interests, physical, mental, and psychosocial well being. How much time is spent documenting - Answer-1/3 How much time is spent planning - Answer-1/3 How much time is spent in groups - Answer-1/3 What are the exact requirements for the number of acti...

ACTIVITY DIRECTOR CLASS two main theories of aging - Answer-Biological and psychological activity theory - Answer-Most older persons are happy when active. Seniors do the same activities as they did in their middle years. Seniors rust out before they wear out most older adults can.. - Answer-learn new things the reason women live longer than men is that they have less stress then men - Answer-false Icebreakers are used to.. - Answer-get to know each other when working with vi...

INTRODUCTION TO REPRODUCTIVE NURSING CARE Assessment Interview - Answer-Open-ended, gender-appropriate, nonjudgmental, sensitive to body language and eye contact. Start with the least sensitive information. No assumptions. Culture - Answer--Evil eye (prenatal/postnatal) touch baby for protection -vaccines, diet, and mental health wellness for some cultures that do not do prenatal care. -Muslim culture: delays baby naming Age - Answer-Teen: education on safe sex, birth control, STI s...

METAL FORMING Bulk Deformation - Answer-1. Rolling 2. Forging 3. Extrusion 4. Wire and bar drawgin Deep Drawing Process - Answer-Blank is held and a punch forms three dimensional bends around die Turret Punch Press - Answer-Produces sheet metal parts Goals of the sheet metal working processes - Answer-1. Dimensional Accuracy 2. Surface finish 3. Large quantities Ironing - Answer-- Makes wall thickness more uniform of cylinder - Higher efficiency of material Punch and die ...

CHAPTER 16-METAL FORMING sheet metal - Answer-metal in sheets or thin plates that is usually shipped in large coils Pressworking, press forming, stamping - Answer-generic term used to describe general sheet metal forming operations Stamping - Answer-general term for the impressing of sheet metal by a press; sheet-metal part produced by a press Blank - Answer-workpiece that is cut from sheet metal by shearing and is the starting material for further manufactuing operations Punch Pr...

NY Metal Coil Endorsement Practice Questions How are tiedowns used to secure a row of metal coils with eyes vertical on a flatbed vehicle with anchor points? - Answer-At least one direct tiedown against the front of the row of coils (to restrain against forward motion) and at least one other direct tiedown against the rear of the row (to restrain against rearward motion), making an angle of 45 degrees or less with the floor. At least one indirect tiedown over the top of each coil or side by s...

NARM Practice: Prenatal Testing Amnioscopy - Answer- Procedure that allows visual examination of amniotic fluid without entering membranes Autosomal recessive disorders - Answer- -Trait expressed if both alleles carry the gene -Carriers will have at least one recessive gene Example autosomal recessive disorder - Answer- Tay Sach's, Cystic fibrosis, and Sickle cell anemia MCV (mean corpuscular volume) - Answer- Average size of RBCs Indicator for anemia Normal: 80-100 fL M...

NARM Practice: Prenatal Probable signs of pregnancy - Answer- Hegar's sign, Chadwick's sign, Osiander's sign, Goodel's sign, enlarging abdomen, positive pregnancy test at clinic, Braxton Hick's contractions. Chadwick's sign/Jacquemier's sign - Answer- Bluish, purple discoloration of cervix, vagina, and vulva. Hegar's Sign - Answer- Softening of isthmus (neck of cervix) Presumptive signs of pregnancy - Answer- Amenorrhea, nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness/chan...

NARM (Prenatal) What is the low dose of baby aspirin if a client has risk factors for pre-eclampsia? - Answer- 81mg What is the range for severe hypertension? - Answer- Systolic > 160mm hg or diastolic >110 What does HELLP syndrome stand for? - Answer- Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count What are symptoms of pre-eclampsia? - Answer- -Headache -Scotoma (visual changes and seeing dots) -HTN -Proteinuria -Edema (especially facial edema) -RUQ pain What sho...

NUR 455 IHI QI 105: Leading Quality Improvement What are the four phases of an improvement project? - Answer- Innovation-Pilot-Implementation-Spread The four phases of an improvement project are "Innovation-Pilot-Implementation-Spread." Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycles are tests of change that improvers conduct during different phases of their improvement projects. How should Sandy and her improvement team try out the new process for improving pain control? - Answer- Test the new...