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Hypothalamus functions - correct answer -TAN HATS Thirst/water balance Adenohypophysis control (ant. pituitary; derived from Rathke's Pouch) Neurohypophysis release hormones from hypothalamus Hunger Autonomic regulation Temperature regulation Sexual urges Posterior Pituitary + Hypothalamic Nucleuses + Functions - correct answer -Supraoptic nucleus: makes ADH (Lesions can cause diabetes insipidus) Paraventricular nucleus: makes Oxytocin Suprachiasmatic Nucleus - correct a...

Organophosphates - correct answer anticholinesterase poisoning Atropine, pralodoxime - correct answer anticholinesterase poisoning treatment bethachol - correct answer muscarinic direct agonist; post-op ileus, urinary retention carbechol - correct answer muscarinic direct agonist; glaucoma pilocarpine - correct answer muscarinic direct agonist; stimulates sweat, tears, saliva methacholine - correct answer muscarinic direct agonist; asthma diagnositic test neostigmine - correct ...

Increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction - correct answer What are the major functions of the α1 receptor? Decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease aqueous humor production - correct answer What are the major functions of the α2 receptor? Increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase ...

What are the major functions of the α1 receptor? - correct answer Increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction What are the major functions of the α2 receptor? - correct answer Decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release, decrease lipolysis, increase platelet aggregation, decrease aqueous humor production What are the major functions of the β1 receptor? ...

Mnemonic for delivering bad news? - correct answer SPIKES Set the stage Perception of situation/news Invitation- how much pt wants to know Knowledge- their understanding Empathy Summary and strategy 4 Steps to assessing a pts decision making capacity? - correct answer CUAR -Communicates a choice -Understands the info provided and treatment options -Appreciates the consequences of treatment vs no treatment -Rationale given for their decision and its risks/benefits Steps in a clini...

Number Needed to Harm - correct answer 1/Attributable Risk = 1/[(Ppl w/ Intervention & Disease/Total Ppl w/ Intervention)-(Ppl w/o Intervention & Disease/Total Ppll w/o Intervention)] Factorial Study - correct answer Study design where different combination of treatments are given to different patient groups Advantages include that researchers evaluate multiple independent variables at the same time Internal Validity - correct answer The extent to which we can draw cause-and-ef...

Essential HTN - correct answer (95% of cases)...no identifiable cause Secondary HTN most common cause? In young women? - correct answer Renal artery stenosis, in young women = OCPs BP classifications Normal: Prehypertension: Stage I: Stage II: - correct answer Normal: < or = 120/80 Prehypertension: > 120/80 but <140/90 Stage I: > or = 140/90 Stage II: > or = 160/100 Hypertensive urgency - correct answer Severe HTN (>180, >120) in asymptomatic patient ...

Clues to ischemic disease - correct answersdull pain 15-30 minutes occurs on exertion substernal radiates to jaw or left arm PE findings for ischemic chest pain - correct answersS3 (dilated LV) S4 (hypertrophic LV) holosystolic murmur (MR) JVD Rales (CHF) Edema Gen: distressed, SOB, clutching chest. MI: diagnostic testing: 1. first test to do: 2. if choosing between testing and treatment: 3. first treatment to give: 4. Other tests to do: 5. most accurate test: - correct...

pemphigus vulgaris - correct answer thin and fragile, Nikolsky (+) bullous pemphigoid - correct answer bullae intact, thick, immunofluorescent antibodies prophyria cutanea tarda - correct answer 1. photosensitivity 2. phelbotomy drug hypersensitivity - correct answer 1. Urticaria 2. morbilliform rashes 3 erythema multiforme (target like <5cm), 3 stevens-johnson syndrome, mucous membrane and respirotary system 4. Toxic epidermal necroysis tinea capitis,

Pseudogout associations - correct answer hemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, acromegaly, hypothyroidism Gout crystals - correct answer negatively birefringent needles Pseudogout crystals - correct answer positively birefringent needles Vasculitis associated with chronic Hep B - correct answer polyarteritis nodosa Vasculitis associated with chronic Hep C - correct answer cryoglobulinemia Best blood test for polyarteritis nodosa - correct answer There is none. Get abdominal ...

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Hemophilia A? - correct answer X-linked recessive: women born to fathers with X linked recessive disorder will be carriers. Males are 50% carriers if born to an affected mother. What is tx of Lewy body dementia? - correct answer Dopamine agonist therapy (PD) & AchE inhibitors (Alzeihmer's) - watch for dopamine agonist therapy causing complex visual hallucinations. A patient treated for LTBI and now has positive PPD. Asymptomatic and also has ne...

rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed with at least 4 of the following criteria: - correct answer morning stiffness >1 hr, involvement of MCP, PIP; swelling of at least 3 joints; symmetric involvement; rheumatoid nodules, X-ray abnormalities showing erosions, + rheumatoid factor or anti-CCP; CRP or ESR most accurate test for rheumatoid arthritis - correct answer anti-cyclic citrulinated peptide felty's syndrome - correct answer rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia boutonniere...

How does acute angle glaucoma present? - correct answer acute onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision associated with nausea and vomiting. Exam reveals a red eye with steamy cornea and moderately dilated pupil that is non reactive to light How does primary open angle glaucoma present? - correct answer (more common in African Americans) ASx usually (initial stages) Gradual loss of peripheral vision over a period of years, and eventual tunnel vision. Exam: intraocular pressure high an...

What are characteristics of lung consolidation? - correct answer bronchial breath sounds, dullness to percussion, increased fremitus, bronchoscopy, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy on physical exam. Bronchial breath sounds have a full expiratory phase. What are characteristics of pleural effusion? - correct answer fluid blocks sound transmission from the air-filled lungs, causing dullness to percussion, decreased breath sounds, decreased tactile fremitus, and transmitted voice sounds ...

USMLE exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

USMLE exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

USMLE exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

USMLE exam 2023 with 100% correct answers

Inoculation theory - correct answer is a social psychological/communication theory that explains how an attitude or belief can be protected against persuasion or influence in much the same way a body can be protected against disease-for example, through pre-exposure to weakened versions of a stronger, future threat. Encryption - correct answer attempts to make information unreadable by anyone who is not explicitly authorized to view that data. People or devices can be authorized to access...

b - correct answer -Business communication can be described as a. all contacts inside and outside an organization. b. establishing a common understanding within a business environment. c. preparing letters and memos. d. the transmission of data and information in the business environment a - correct answer -Formal communication in an organization a. flows in all directions. b. is essential for effective personal relationships. c. is not essential for the operation of a business. d. is...