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Multiple Choice A client's release of information must include the ______. A. professional credentials of the witness B. client's social security number C. revocation statement D. date client entered treatment A. professional credentials of the witness C. revocation statement B. client's social security number C. revocation statement D. date client entered treatment Multiple Choice Federal law permits information to be released without client permission in the case of _____....

drug and alcohol history quantity, frequency of use, patterns over time and progression are necessary questions when taking the client's what? a problem statement, a goal statement, measurable objectives a good treatment plan generally consists of what elements? help the client identify his or her internal and external relapse triggers when working with a client who has relapsed, it is most important to do what? level of psychoactive substance abuse the DAST is used to ...

Multiple Choice 1. A client's release of information must include the _____________. A. Professional credentials of the witness B. Client's social security number C. Revocation Statement D. Date client entered treatment A. Professional credentials of the witness B. Client's social security number C. Revocation Statement D. Date client entered treatment Principle 2: Client Welfare See page 29 of the study module three The federal guidelines (42 CFR) requires that the consen...

Case management is needed because services tend to be fragmented and inadequate to meet the needs of the substance abusing population. this lack of coordinated services may result from all of the following factors EXCEPT: funding focused on single modalities rather than a continuum of care ____________________ is the essential first step in determining the possible causes of addiction for the person and the most appropriate treatment modality for his or her needs. assessment A cl...

1) Quantity, frequency of use, patterns over time, and progression are necessary questions when taking the client's _______________. A. legal history B. medical history C. family history D. drug and alcohol history A. legal history B. medical history C. family history D. drug and alcohol history See page 42 of the study module two updated version 1) To identify those who have a condition related to a psychoactive substance use disorder 2) To assess the full range of difficulti...

1) Quantity, frequency of use, patterns over time, and progression are necessary questions when taking the client's _______________. A. legal history B. medical history C. family history D. drug and alcohol history A. legal history B. medical history C. family history D. drug and alcohol history See page 42 of the study module two updated version 1) To identify those who have a condition related to a psychoactive substance use disorder 2) To assess the full range of difficulti...

Multiple Choice A disadvantage of benzodiazepines is the development of physical dependence after _____. A. nine months use B. one to two weeks use C. four months use D. thirty days use four months use See page 42, first paragraph Multiple Choice "Huffing" is a method of administration most commonly used with ______. A. inhalants/solvents B. opiates C. crack cocaine D. hallucinogens inhalants/solvents Multiple Choice All of the following are currently approved f...

The main outcomes that can be expected after successful adoption of EGIT: Benefits realization Risk optimization Resource optimization What Is COBIT COBIT is a framework for the governance and management of enterprise information and technology Governance ensures that: Stakeholder needs, conditions and options are evaluated to determine balanced, agreed-on enterprise objectives. Direction is set through prioritization and decision making. Performance and compliance are monit...

Which Principle is key for governance and management of enterprise? Enabling a Holistic approach What percentage representes F - full achievement of an attribute in an assessed process, defined by the COBIT 5 assessment approach? 85% to 100% Identify the missing word in the following sentence: The definition of ________ is a collection of practices influenced by the enterprise's policies and procedures that takes input from a number of sources, manipulates the inputs and produc...

Which action is NOT considered a good practice to encourage desired behaviour in an enterprise? a) Incentives to encourage and deterrents to enforce desired behaviour b) Communication throughout the enterprise of desired behaviours and the underlying corporate values c) Appointing business champions d) Publishing delegation of authority procedures d) Publishing delegation of authority procedures is not one of the good practices to help encourage desired behaviour but the other three are. ...

EDM Evaluate, direct & monitor EDM 1 Ensure governance framework setting & maintenance EDM 3 Ensure risk optimization EDM 5 Ensure stakeholder transparency APO Align, plan & organize APO 2 Manage strategy APO 4 Manage innovation APO 13 Manage security BAI Build, acquire & implement BAI 1 Manage programs & projects

Which BSC dimension does the following alignment goal fall under: Quality of technology-related financial information Financial Which of the following best describes COBIT? A.COBIT is a framework for the governance and management of enterprise information and technology. B.COBIT is a full description of the whole IT environment of an enterprise. C.COBIT is a framework to organize business processes. A Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Enterprise Governance of Info...

Which MOST senior official is responsible for aligning IT and business strategies, and accountable for planning, resourcing and managing delivery of I&T services and solutions? ​ Chief Technology Officer (CTO) ​ Chief Executive Officer (CEO) (Incorrect) ​ Chief Information Officer (CIO) (Correct) CIO In most enterprises, governance is the responsibility of ​ The Executive Committee ​ The board of Directors (Correct) ​ The Chief Executive Officer Explanation T...

Thawing food can be part of the cooking process if cooked to the requirements of the FDA food code Foodborne Pathogens easily transmitted through food Salmonella, Shigella, Norovirus, E Coli, Hepatits A, Clostridium Botulinum Salmonella - Cause Can be found on any food item exposed to animal waste Salmonella - Infection immediate, develops within 12-72 hours and lasts 4-7 days Salmonella - Symptoms food poisoining Salmonella - Prevention avoid cross conta...

One way managers can show they know how to keep food safe is to: A. become certified in food safety B. monitor employees. A. become certified in food safety What is the purpose of a FOOD SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM? A. to reduce/eliminate workplace incidents B. to prevent foodborne illness by controlling risks & hazards B. to prevent foodborne illness by controlling risks & hazards 3 components of active managerial control? identifying risks, corrective action, and training...

Hot foods can be reheated if Less than 2 hours at incorrect temperature and not contaminated. Reheat to 165°F minimum. Highly Susceptible Population Young Children, The Elderly, Weakened Immune Systems Partial cooking during preparation Do not cook food longer than 60 minutes during initial cooking. Cool food immediately. Freeze or refrigerate after cooling 41°F or lower. Heat food to at least 165°F for 15 seconds before selling or serving. Cool the food if not served im...

Abrasive a cleaning agent that contains scouring agents Aerobic Bacteria bacteria that require oxygen to grow air gap an unobstructed open vertical space separating two plumbing fixtures which prevent contamination from the lower fixture to the higher one. May be used to protect a potable water outlet (faucet) from water in the sink bowl or to protect the drain line from a food preparation sink from possible sewage back-ups. Alkaline a substance with a pH above 7.0 ...

180 In a heat-sanitizing dishwashing machine, what is the minimum temperature for the final rinse? Jaundice, vomiting and/or diarrhea A food handler must be excluded from the food establishment for which symptoms? 41 to 135 What is the temperature range for the danger zone? spore What is the form some bacteria take to keep from dying when they do not have enough food? state Most regulations for food service operations are at what level? 41 or lower At wha...

What is a thermocouple? a. a metal probed thermometer b. a type of single us impermeable glove c. a thermostat in a walk in cooler d. a backflow prevention device a. a metal probed thermometer it is a thermometer with a metal probe, the sensing area is the tip of the probe and the reading is given digitally commonly used to measure the temperature of thick and thin food What is the best approach to dealing with pests? a. deny pests food, water, and shelter b. deny pests acces...

Active Managerial Control It is a system to create and implement food safety procedures Active Managerial Control is a 3-step process (Name each) 1. Create Policy 2. Train 3. Follow up Describe 'create policy' from the active managerial process Create policy means: -Identify food safety risks -For each risk, create a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) Describe 'train' from the active managerial process Train means: -On the job training, training meetings, or tra...