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CCRN EXAM A 59 year old male is admitted complaining of chest pain and dyspnea. ST elevation and T wave inversion were seen on the EKG in V2,V3 and V4. IV thrombolytic therapy was started in ED. Indications of successful reperfusion would include all of the following except: (A) pain cessation (B) decrease in CK or troponin (C) reversal of ST segment elevation with return to baseline (D) short runs of ventricular tachycardia - ANS (B)Coronary artery reperfusion due to PCI o...

Practice Test 1 CCRN (Pass CCRN) What is vasogenic cerebral edema? - ANS Vasogenic cerebral edema is an increase in extracellular fluid caused by a breakdown of the blood-brain barrier with the resultant increase in vascular permeability. This cerebral edema begins locally and becomes more generalized. Common causes are trauma (including surgical trauma), tumors, hemorrhage, and abscesses What ventilator parameter indicates fluid volume excess? - ANS An A:a gradient greater...

PASS the CCRN! Questions A 56 yr-old male is admitted to the ICU with a blood pressure of 225/135 and complains of a headache and nausea. He reports he ran out of blood pressure meds three days ago, but also appears to be confused to the date and situation. What is the most appropriate treatment approach? - ANS Rapidly lower the diastolic pressure to 100 with IV antihypertensive meds, then continue to gradually reduce the diastolic pressure to 85 with oral antihypertensive meds. Th...

Pass CCRN test bank Which of the following would be the earliest auscultatory finding in left ventricular failure (LVF)? A. Crackles B. S3 C. Murmur of mitral regurgitation D. Pericardial friction rub - ANS B. S3 LVF would be the most subtle because early changes are usually subtle changes. Choose "S3." A patient with a triple-lumen subclavian catheter has been receiving total parenteral nutrition, maintenance fluids, and antibiotics by the catheter. He has been ...

CCRN Test Bank Which 12-lead ECG changes should be expected in a patient with ACS involving the inferior wall? a) ST segment elevation in leads II, III and all the precordial leads b) ST segment elevation and deeply inverted T waves in leads II, III and AvF c) ST segment elevation and deeply inverted T waves in leads V4-V6, I and aVL d) ST segment depression and T wave elevation in leads II, III and AvL - ANS Correct Answer: ST segment elevation and deeply inverted T waves in...

ONS/ONCC Chemotherapy/Immunotherapy Lesson 9: Plant Alkaloids Common plant alkaloids - ANS Etoposide Docetaxel Paclitaxel Vinblastine Vinorelbine Vinca Alkaloids - ANS -e.g. Vincristine, Vinblastine, Vinorelbine -IV ONLY: NEVER intrathecal (DEATH!!) -If administered in a syringe, it must be clearly labeled with IV ONLY label -many guidelines urge diluting vincristine into mini IV drip bag and never use syringe to administer to prevent error Taxanes - ANS e.g. paclit...

ONS Chemotherapy Administration What do alkylating chemotherapy drugs do? - ANS Chemotherapy drugs that are cell cycle nonspecific, so they exert their effects in all phases of the cell cycle. They directly damage DNA to prevent cancer cells from reproducing. They cause breaks in the DNA or cross-linking in a process called alkylation, which causes the drug to interfere with DNA replication. neoadjuvant therapy - ANS a cancer treatment that precedes other primary tr...

ONS/ONCC Chemotherapy/Immunotherapy Lesson 11: Targeted Therapies How targeted therapy and chemo differ - ANS -targeted therapies act on specific molecular targets on or within the cells that are associated with cancer, whereas standard chemo act on all rapidly dividing cells-chemo has more SEs-targeted therapy ae chosen and designed to interact with their target on or within the cells, whereas chemo were IDed becaused they kill cells-targeted therapies are often cytostatic (th...

Chemotherapy/Immunotherapy Certificate Course (ONS,ONCC) Alkylating agents - ANS Classification Break DNA helix strand, thereby interfering with DNA replication Altretamine (Hexalen) - ANS Alkylating Agent PO Ovarian CA Side effects- nausea, vomiting, skin rash, hypersensitivity reaction, diarrhea Dose limiting - neuro-toxicity, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression Bendamustine (Treanda/Bendeka) - ANS Alkylating agent IV CLL or Indolent NHL Side effe...

ONS Chemotherapy Immunotherapy Certificate 3 major phases of cell division: - ANS Interphase Mitotic phase Cytokinesis 3 steps of interphase: - ANS First growth phase (G1) Synthesis phase (S phase) Second growth phase (G2) 4 phases of mitosis: - ANS Prophase Metaphase Anaphase Telophase Innate immunity: - ANS Non-specific response, either: 1. Barrier (skin, mucous membranes, flora of skin/gut) 2. Cellular components (phagocytes, natural killer cells, ...

ONS/ONCC Chemotherapy Immunotherapy Certificate Lesson 1: Foundations to Set the Stage - ANS Focusing on Cellular Structure and Function - ANS The Normal Cell Cycle - ANS -The cell cycle refers to the ordered seres of processes of DNA replication and mitosis, or cell division -Cell nucleus regulates these processes by gathering and processing complexes molecular information Interphase and Mitotic Phase - ANS Cell division produces two identical cells through ...

Civil Procedure Final Exam litigation - ANS the process by which parties seek to resolve their dispute by going to court Sources of legal authority - ANS A. 1) constitutions (highest form of law); 2) statutes (acts of congress, peoples reps from each state); 3) court rules (procedures in every court system); 4) case law primary, and potentially binding ; 5) treaties; 6) regulations; 7) ordinances stare decisis - ANS top down precedent, must abide by decided cases-This e...

civil procedure final exam review fall 2024 P a citizen of Delaware, sues Business, an LLC formed under the laws of Delaware with its principal (indeed, its only) place of business in Los Angeles, CA. Business' members are citizens of CA, AZ, NM, and NV. P sues for $500,000 breach of contract in state court in Los Angeles CA. Business removes of the federal court for the central district of CA, which embraces Los Angeles, based on diversity of citizenship jurisdiction. a.Business...

Civil Procedure I — Final Exam Subject Matter Jurisdiction - ANS The power of a court to hear a particular type of case. Federal courts are of limited jurisdiction; they do not have broad SMJ like state courts do. Concurrent Jurisdiction - ANS The state courts can hear the majority of claims that can be heard in federal courts. What do you need to have SMJ in a Federal Court? - ANS Constitutional and Statutory Authority Majority are brought under Federal Qu...

Civil Procedure Final Exam Responding to the complaint, the defendant may - ANS Montest Settle Do nothing May challenge a lawsuit on two basis - ANS Contest the facts Challenge the legal basis In federal court, every defense can be asserted in an - ANS answer In state court, some defenses must be - ANS asserted by motion or special pleadings Summons tells you when you have to - ANS answer Must note deadline for filing answer of - ANS ...

Civil Procedure Final Exam List the possible responses to the complaint - ANS Contest the facts/lawsuit Negotiate a settlement with plaintiff/challenge legality (motion or demurrer) Do nothing/default Settle Describe the time limitations for these responses along with methods for changing these limitations - ANS When contesting an action the time limit is set by state law if the case is in state court. Federal court provides for 21 days to respond unless service has been ...

Civil Procedure II - Final Exam Pleading - ANS Document in which claimants set forth their claims and defending parties respond to the claims and raise defenses. Concerns the sufficiency of each side's allegations. Rule 8(a) - Three things must be in the complaint - ANS 1) Subject Matter Jurisdiction 2) Short and plain statement of the claim. 3) A demand for relief sought. Twombly and Icqbal, boiled down, say three things - ANS a. Plaintiff must plead fac...

Civil Procedure Final Exam Approach to Discovery - ANS 1. Disclosure: Can the information being requested be obtained through initial disclosure Rule 26(a)? 2. Scope of Discovery: Is the information requested within the scope of discovery? Disclosure: Can the information being requested be obtained through initial disclosure Rule 26(a)? - ANS Under rule 26(a), parties are required to make initial disclosure without a formal request. This includes: 1. Identity of each witnes...

Civil Procedure Final Exam Subject-Matter Jurisdiction - ANS Decides "Federal Forum" v. "State Forum" - Diversity Citizenship - Federal Question (you have the option of federal) Diversity Jurisdiction Requirements - ANS 1. Amount in Controversy: P's Claim more then $75,000. Claim must be made in "good faith" 2. Complete Diversity: "Across the V", no plaintiff can reside int he same state as any defendant. When does Diversity Jurisdiction apply? - ANS ...

Beta Blocker Questions How does metoprolol act to lower blood pressure? Select all that apply. a.) Lowering heart rate b.) Reducing renin release c.) Dilating peripheral arteries d.) Decreasing cardiac contractility e.) Increasing bronchial constriction - ANS a,b,d a.) Lowering heart rate Beta blockers inhibit beta1 and/or beta2 receptors and act to lower heart rate. b.) Reducing renin release Beta blockers inhibit beta1 and/or beta2 receptors ...