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1. A professional caregiver should a) perform the care assigned, even if he/she is not yet trained b) Only perform the task for which he/she has been trained c) Perform any care requested by the family d) None of the above - ANS b Residents are allowed to refuse medication from facility staff. True/ False - ANS True Which of the following are essential qualities of a professional caregiver a) empathetic b) Considerate c) Cheerful d) All of the above - ANS ...

Zyloprim or Allopurinol medication for - ANS Gout Mr. Forth has been very active even though he had diabetes for 6 years. He accidentally cut his leg last week and tells you that it is getting redder and not healing. You tell him you will let the manager know, and then you explain that: - ANS b. It is normal for diabetics who get cut to see more redness as it heals The health care provider ordered Lanoxin 0.5mg by mouth. You have Lanoxin 0.25mg tablets. What should you ad...

Flexible endoscopes must be competently reprocessed so that - ANS patient care is not adversely affected Ethics is the practice of - ANS conforming to accepted and professional standards of conduct The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides for which ethical issue? - ANS Confidentiality Recommended practices are - ANS statements of sound principles of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts ...

A healthcare-acquired infection is generally termed as? - ANS nosocomial infection When should the device manufacturer's written instructions be requested from the manufacturer? - ANS Every time a facility obtains a new device Which agency recommends topics such as hand hygiene, isolation precaution and environmental infection control? - ANS CDC An accrediting agency with a primary function of conducting extensive onsite visits and evaluating healthcare facil...

Which of the following is a major cause of AER failure? - Using incorrect connectors Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use? - OSHA The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that SDSs must be available for - all chemicals used in the department How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacturers? - Each time the item is purchased According to Dr. Earl Spaulding, devices that come in contact with int...

Which of the following is a major cause of AER failures? - ANS Using incorrect connectors Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use? - ANS OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that SDS's (Safety Data Sheet) must be available for? - ANS All chemicals used in the department How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacture...

Flexible endoscopes MUST be completely reprocessed so that - ANS Patient care is not adversely affected Ethics - ANS Conforming to accepted and professional standards of conduct HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) provides for which ethical issue - ANS Confidentiality Recommended practices are: - ANS Statements of sound principles of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts. regulation - ANS ...

Flexible endoscopes MUST be competently reprocessed so that - ANS Patient care is not adversely affected Ethics is the practice of: - ANS conforming to accepted and professional standards of conduct The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides for which ethical issue? - ANS Confidentiality Recommended practices are: - ANS Statements of sound principles of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of expert...

The nurse prepares to defibrillate a patient. For which dysrhythmia has the nurse observed in this patient? - ANS Ventricular fibrillation Defibrillation is always indicated in the treatment of ventricular fibrillation. third degree heart block choice - ANS Pacemakers uncontrolled AFIB and VTACH with a pulse (if pt stable) - ANS drug treatments V TACH with a pulse (if pt stable) - ANS drug treatments otherwise synchronized cardioversion is used (a...

What is the appropriate treatment for an unstable patient with atrial flutter and an uncontrolled ventricular response; HR >150 beats per minute? - ANS Defibrillation Caffeine, alcohol, and fatigue can be likely causes for (Select all that apply.) - ANS Atrial flutter Sinus pause Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia Which of the following conditions/situations may cause bradycardia? - ANS Hypoxia Which of the following is an accurate statement abo...

When developing a health teaching plan for a 65-year-old patient with all these risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse will focus on the a. family history of heart disease. b. increased risk associated with the patient's ethnicity. c. high incidence of cardiovascular disease in older people. d. low activity level the patient reports. - ANS Correct Answer: D Rationale: Because family history, ethnicity, and age are nonmodifiable risk factors, the nurse should...

First Degree Atrioventricular Heart Block - ANS prolonged PR interval-measures the time required for an impulse to travel from the SA to the AV node. PRI longer than 0.20 Second degree AV block Type I - ANS progressive prolongation of PRI, gradual shortening of R to R intervals P wave not followed by a QRS wave a pause with an R to R interval less than the sum of two P to P intervals first conducted atrial impulse after the pause shows a shorter or normal PRI S...

Normal Sinus Rhythm - ANS Refers to a rhythm that originates in the SA node @ a rate of 60-100 BPM and follows the normal conduction pattern of the cardiac cycle. Sinus Bradycardia - ANS The conduction pathway is the same as that in sinus rhythm but the SA node fires @ a rate of less than 60 BPM. Maybe normal for athletes. Symptomatic Sinus Bradycardia S/S - ANS Pale, cool skin, hypotension, weakness, angina, dizziness or syncope, confusion or disorientation, and...

What does the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produce? - ANS -increased HR The primary pacemaker of the heart, the SA node, is functional if a patient's pulse is at what regular rate? - ANS -60-100 bpm The nurse is taking vital signs and reviewing the ECG of a patient who is training for a marathon. The HR is 45 bpm and the ECG shows sinus bradycardia. How does the nurse interpret this data? - ANS -an adequate stroke volume that is associated with ...

To determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction through the atria, the nurse will measure the duration of the patients a. P wave. b. Q wave. c. P-R interval. d. QRS complex - ANS a; The P wave represents the depolarization of the atria. The P-R interval represents depolarization of the atria, atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and the Purkinje fibers. The QRS represents ventricular depolarization. The Q wave is the first negative deflectio...

A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 80 complexes per minute. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complex measures 0.08 second. The nurse interprets this rhythm is: A) Normal sinus rhythm B) Sinus bradycardia C) Sinus tachycardia D) Sinus dysrhythmia - ANS A A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. A nurse is most concerned with this dysrhythmia because: A) It is uncomfortable for the client,...

Which of these patients is at a higher risk for developing deep vein thrombosis? Jerry, a 64-year-old man with a history of epilepsy Samantha, a 45-year-old female undergoing a hysterectomy Diane, a 15-year-old female with type 1 diabetes Ben, a 23-year-old male with a history of a pneumothorax - ANS Samantha, a 45-year 0ld female undergoing a hysterectomy The ACC/AHA guidelines provide a staging system that describes the progressive phases of heart failure, classified as...

Basics with skin conditions - ANS •Alopecia •Rash •Pruritus •Urticaria •Pigmentation change Skin lesion—New vs. Change HPI questions for skin problems - ANS Duration of symptoms Precipitating factors •Medications •Food •Occupation •Outdoors •Hobbies/Sport participation •Exposure to insects •Jewelry/metals/chemicals •Family history Is it: Local or systemic Pruritus- all day or worse at night Urticaria - duration Pigmented chang...

A 13 year old obese (BMI greater than 95%) boy reports low-grade left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent horseplay with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative Drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests; left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; an...

1. One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure? a. Bone b. Synovium c. Tendons d. Fascia - ANS b. Synovium 2. You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is a limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement....